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Exam Dumps CAS-003 Practice Free Latest CompTIA Practice Tests [Q398-Q419]

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  2. Exam Dumps CAS-003 Practice Free Latest CompTIA Practice Tests [Q398-Q419]

Exam Dumps CAS-003 Practice Free Latest CompTIA Practice Tests [Q398-Q419]

December 18, 2022 adminCAS-003, CompTIACAS-003 authentic exam hub, CAS-003 new study guide free download, CAS-003 pdf demo download, CAS-003 Related Exams, CAS-003 reliable exam labs, CAS-003 reliable exam syllabus, CAS-003 Study Notes
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Exam Dumps CAS-003 Practice Free Latest CompTIA Practice Tests

CAS-003 Exam Questions | Real CAS-003 Practice Dumps

QUESTION 398
An insurance company is looking to purchase a smaller company in another country. Which of the following tasks would the security administrator perform as part of the security due diligence?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
IT security professionals should have a chance to review the security controls and practices of a company targeted for acquisition. Any irregularities that are found should be reported to management so that expenses and concerns are properly identified.

QUESTION 399
An organization is in the process of integrating its operational technology and information technology areas. As part of the integration, some of the cultural aspects it would like to see include more efficient use of resources during change windows, better protection of critical infrastructure, and the ability to respond to incidents. The following observations have been identified:
* The ICS supplier has specified that any software installed will result in lack of support.
* There is no documented trust boundary defined between the SCADA and
corporate networks.
* Operational technology staff have to manage the SCADA equipment via
the engineering workstation.
* There is a lack of understanding of what is within the SCADA network.
Which of the following capabilities would BEST improve the security position?

 
 
 
 
SIEM should provide us with all the info we are missing. a VPN will allow the OT team to connect to the engineering workstation and the firewall will provide a trust boundary between the two networks along with added protection for the unsupported software.

QUESTION 400
A company has created a policy to allow employees to use their personally owned devices. The Chief
Information Officer (CISO) is getting reports of company data appearing on unapproved forums and an
increase in theft of personal electronic devices.
Which of the following security controls would BEST reduce the risk of exposure?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 401
A security analyst is classifying data based on input from data owners and other stakeholders. The analyst has identified three data types:
* Financially sensitive data
* Project data
* Sensitive project data
The analyst proposes that the data be protected in two major groups, with further access control separating the financially sensitive data from the sensitive project data. The normal project data will be stored in a separate, less secure location. Some stakeholders are concerned about the recommended approach and insist that commingling data from different sensitive projects would leave them vulnerable to industrial espionage.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the analyst to recommend?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 402
Given the following code snippet:

Of which of the following is this snippet an example?

 
 
 
 
 

QUESTION 403
A well-known retailer has experienced a massive credit card breach. The retailer had gone through an audit and had been presented with a potential problem on their network. Vendors were authenticating directly to the retailer’s AD servers, and an improper firewall rule allowed pivoting from the AD server to the DMZ where credit card servers were kept. The firewall rule was needed for an internal application that was developed, which presents risk. The retailer determined that because the vendors were required to have site to site VPN’s no other security action was taken.
To prove to the retailer the monetary value of this risk, which of the following type of calculations is needed?

 
 
 
 
Performing quantitative risk analysis focuses on assessing the probability of risk with a metric measurement which is usually a numerical value based on money or time.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A residual risk is one that still remains once the risk responses are applied. Thus a Residual risk calculation is not required.
B: Cost Benefit Analysis is used for Quality Planning. This is not what is required.
D: A qualitative risk analysis entails a subjective assessment of the probability of risks. The scenario warrants a quantitative risk.
References:
Project Management Institute, A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide), 5th Edition, Project Management Institute, Inc., Newtown Square, 2013, pp. 373, 585, 589 Schwalbe, Kathy, Managing Information Technology Projects, Revised 6th Edition, Course Technology, Andover, 2011, pp. 421-447 Whitaker, Sean, PMP Training Kit, O’Reilly Media, Sebastopol, 2013, pp. 335-375

QUESTION 404
An information security officer is responsible for one secure network and one office network. Recent intelligence suggests there is an opportunity for attackers to gain access to the secure network due to similar login credentials across networks. To determine the users who should change their information, the information security officer uses a tool to scan a file with hashed values on both networks and receives the following data:

Which of the following tools was used to gather this information from the hashed values in the file?

 
 
 
 
 

QUESTION 405
Executive management is asking for a new manufacturing control and workflow automation solution. This application will facilitate management of proprietary information and closely guarded corporate trade secrets.
The information security team has been a part of the department meetings and come away with the following notes:
Human resources would like complete access to employee data stored in the application. They would like automated data interchange with the employee management application, a cloud-based SaaS application.
Sales is asking for easy order tracking to facilitate feedback to customers.
Legal is asking for adequate safeguards to protect trade secrets. They are also concerned with data ownership questions and legal jurisdiction.
Manufacturing is asking for ease of use. Employees working the assembly line cannot be bothered with additional steps or overhead. System interaction needs to be quick and easy.
Quality assurance is concerned about managing the end product and tracking overall performance of the product being produced. They would like read-only access to the entire workflow process for monitoring and baselining.
The favored solution is a user friendly software application that would be hosted onsite. It has extensive ACL functionality, but also has readily available APIs for extensibility. It supports read-only access, kiosk automation, custom fields, and data encryption.
Which of the following departments’ request is in contrast to the favored solution?

 
 
 
 
 
The human resources department wanted complete access to employee data stored in the application, and an automated data interchange with their cloud-based SaaS employee management application. However, the favored solution provides read-only access and is hosted onsite.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The manufacturing department wanted a quick and easy user friendly system. The favored solution is a user friendly software application that would meet the manufacturing department’s requests.
B: The legal department wanted a system that provides adequate safeguards to protect trade secrets and was concerned with data ownership and legal jurisdiction. The favored solution is a user friendly software application that would be hosted onsite. This would address the legal department’s concerns with data ownership and legal jurisdiction. The application also provides data encryption, which would protect trade secrets.
C: The sales department wanted an easy order tracking to facilitate feedback to customers. The favored solution is a user friendly software application that supports custom fields, which could be used for order tracking.
D: The quality assurance department was concerned about managing the end product and tracking overall performance. They also wanted read-only access to the entire workflow process for monitoring and baselining. These are met by the favored solution.

QUESTION 406
Providers at a healthcare system with many geographically dispersed clinics have been fined five times this year after an auditor received notice of the following SMS messages:

Which of the following represents the BEST solution for preventing future fines?

 
 
 
 
 

QUESTION 407
Which of the following describes a contract that is used to define the various levels of maintenance to be
provided by an external business vendor in secure environment?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 408
A manufacturing company employs SCADA systems to drive assembly lines across geographically dispersed sites. Therefore, the company must use the Internet to transport control messages and responses. Which of the following architectural changes when integrated will BEST reduce the manufacturing control system’s attack surface? (Select TWO)

 
 
 
 
 
 

QUESTION 409
A security technician receives a copy of a report that was originally sent to the board of directors by the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO).
The report outlines the following KPVKRI data for the last 12 months:

Which of the following BEST describes what could be interpreted from the above data?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 410
A company has decided to lower costs by conducting an internal assessment on specific devices and various internal and external subnets. The assessment will be done during regular office hours, but it must not affect any production servers.
Which of the following would MOST likely be used to complete the assessment? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 
 

QUESTION 411
An administrator is tasked with securing several website domains on a web server. The administrator elects to secure www.example.com, mail.example.org, archive.example.com, and www.example.org with the same certificate. Which of the following would allow the administrator to secure those domains with a single issued certificate?

 
 
 
 
Subject Alternative Names let you protect multiple host names with a single SSL certificate. Subject Alternative Names allow you to specify a list of host names to be protected by a single SSL certificate.
When you order the certificate, you will specify one fully qualified domain name in the common name field. You can then add other names in the Subject Alternative Names field.
Incorrect Answers:
A: An Intermediate Root Certificate is used to trust an intermediate CA (Certification Authority). The Intermediate root CA can issue certificates but the Intermediate Root Certificate itself cannot be used to secure multiple domains on a web server.
B: A wildcard certificate can be used to secure multiple domain names within the same higher level domain. For example: a wildcard certificate “*.example.com” can secure an unlimited number of domains that end in ‘example.com’ such as domain1.example.com, domain2.example.com etc. A wildcard certificate cannot be used to secure the domains listed in this question.
C: The certificate used to secure the domains will be an x509 certificate but it will not be a standard EV certificate. EV stands for extended validation. With a non-EV certificate, the issuing CA just ensures that you own the domains that you want to secure. With an EV certificate, further checks are carried out such as checks on your company. EV certificates take longer to issue due to the extra checks but the EV certificate provides extra guarantees to your customers that you are who you say you are. However, a standard EV certificate only secures a single domain.

QUESTION 412
Compliance with company policy requires a quarterly review of firewall rules. You are asked to conduct a review on the internal firewall sitting between several internal networks. The intent of this firewall is to make traffic more secure. Given the following information perform the tasks listed below:
Untrusted zone: 0.0.0.0/0
User zone: USR 10.1.1.0/24
User zone: USR2 10.1.2.0/24
DB zone: 10.1.4.0/24
Web application zone: 10.1.5.0/24
Management zone: 10.1.10.0/24
Web server: 10.1.5.50
MS-SQL server: 10.1.4.70
MGMT platform: 10.1.10.250
Instructions: To perform the necessary tasks, please modify the DST port, SRC zone, Protocol, Action, and/or Rule Order columns. Type ANY to include all ports. Firewall ACLs are read from the top down. Once you have met the simulation requirements, click Save. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.

Task 1) A rule was added to prevent the management platform from accessing the internet. This rule is not working. Identify the rule and correct this issue.
Task 2) The firewall must be configured so that the SQL server can only receive requests from the web server.
Task 3) The web server must be able to receive unencrypted requests from hosts inside and outside the corporate network.
Task 4) Ensure the final rule is an explicit deny.
Task 5) Currently the user zone can access internet websites over an unencrypted protocol. Modify a rule so that user access to websites is over secure protocols only.
Instructions: To perform the necessary tasks, please modify the DST port, SRC zone, Protocol, Action, and/or Rule Order columns. Type ANY to include all ports. Firewall ACLs are read from the top down. Once you have met the simulation requirements, click Save. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.

 
 

QUESTION 413
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) developed a robust plan to address both internal and external vulnerabilities due to an increase in ransomware attacks on the networks However the number of successful attacks continues to increase. Which of the following is the MOST likely failure?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 414
A video-game developer has received reports of players who are cheating. All game players each have five capabilities that are ranked on a scale of 1 to 10 points, with 10 total points available for balance. Players can move these points between capabilities at any time The programming logic is as follows:
* A player asks to move points from one capability to another
* The source capability must have enough points to allow the move
* The destination capability must not exceed 10 after the move
* The move from source capability to destination capability is then completed The time stamps of the game logs show each step of the transfer process takes about 900ms However, the time stamps of the cheating players show capability transfers at the exact same time. The cheating players have 10 points in multiple capabilities. Which of the following is MOST likely being exploited to allow these capability transfers?

 
 
 
 
 
 

QUESTION 415
Ann, a security administrator, is conducting an assessment on a new firewall, which was placed at the perimeter of a network containing PII. Ann runs the following commands on a server (10.0.1.19) behind the firewall:

From her own workstation (192.168.2.45) outside the firewall, Ann then runs a port scan against the server and records the following packet capture of the port scan:

Connectivity to the server from outside the firewall worked as expected prior to executing these commands.
Which of the following can be said about the new firewall?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 416
During the decommissioning phase of a hardware project, a security administrator is tasked with ensuring no sensitive data is released inadvertently. All paper records are scheduled to be shredded in a crosscut shredded, and the waste will be burned. The system drives and removable media have been removed prior to e-cycling the hardware.
Which of the following would ensure no data is recovered from the system droves once they are disposed of?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 417
A security administrator wants to implement an MDM solution to secure access to company email and files in a BYOD environment. The solution must support the following requirements:
* Company administrators should not have access to employees’ personal information.
* A rooted or jailbroken device should not have access to company sensitive information.
Which of the following BEST addresses the associated risks?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 418
A penetration tester is inspecting traffic on a new mobile banking application and sends the following web request:
POSThttp://www.example.com/resources/NewBankAccount
HTTP/1.1
Content-type: application/json
{
“account”:
[
{ “creditAccount”:”Credit Card Rewards account”}
{ “salesLeadRef”:”www.example.com/badcontent/exploitme.exe”}
],
“customer”:
[
{ “name”:”Joe Citizen”}
{ “custRef”:”3153151″}
]
}
The banking website responds with:
HTTP/1.1 200 OK
{
“newAccountDetails”:
[
{ “cardNumber”:”1234123412341234″}
{ “cardExpiry”:”2020-12-31″}
{ “cardCVV”:”909″}
],
“marketingCookieTracker”:”JSESSIONID=000000001″
“returnCode”:”Account added successfully”
}
Which of the following are security weaknesses in this example? (Select TWO).

 
 
 
 
 
 
Explanation
The SalesLeadRef field has no input validation. The penetration tester should not be able to enter
“www.example.com/badcontent/exploitme.exe” in this field.
The credit card numbers are communicated in clear text which makes it vulnerable to an attacker. This kind of information should be encrypted.

QUESTION 419
An organization relies heavily on third-party mobile applications for official use within a BYOD deployment scheme. An excerpt from an approved text-based-chat client application AndroidManifest.xml is as follows:

Which of the following would restrict application permissions while minimizing the impact to normal device operations?

 
 
 
 

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Research, Development & Collaboration: 13%

  • Applying research techniques to establish industry trends and the impact on the enterprise: the individuals should have a good understanding of research security implications of budding business tools; threat intelligence; global IA community/industry; performing ongoing research.
  • Implementing security events across a technology lifecycle: the knowledge areas that will be measured within this topic include systems development lifecycle; asset management; software development lifecycle; adapting solutions to address.
  • Describing the importance of interactions across different business units in achieving security goals: this section covers one’s skills in providing impartial recommendations and objective guidance to senior management and staff on security controls and processes; establishing efficient collaboration in teams for implementing secure solutions; interpreting security prerequisites and objectives to interact with stakeholders from different disciplines.

Certification Path

The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 Exam certification includes only one CAS-003 certification exam.

CompTIA CASP+ CAS-003 Practice Test Questions, CompTIA CASP+ CAS-003 Exam Practice Test Questions

The CompTIA CAS-003 exam determines if the applicants are advanced in their competency regarding risk management, enterprise security, collaboration, and research. It also checks their capabilities in integrating enterprise security. Passing this test enables you to obtain the CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner certification, also known as CASP+. Getting it is an indication of bearing advanced skills in risk analysis, security control, technologies for virtualization and Cloud, and cryptographic techniques.

 

Verified CAS-003 Exam Dumps Q&As – Provide CAS-003 with Correct Answers: https://www.prepawayexam.com/CompTIA/braindumps.CAS-003.ete.file.html

         

Related Links: www.stes.tyc.edu.tw myportal.utt.edu.tt myportal.utt.edu.tt myportal.utt.edu.tt myportal.utt.edu.tt www.stes.tyc.edu.tw

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