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[UPDATED 2024] Free CheckPoint 156-315.81 Exam Questions Self-Assess Preparation [Q154-Q178]

[UPDATED 2024] Free CheckPoint 156-315.81 Exam Questions Self-Assess Preparation [Q154-Q178]

November 3, 2024 admin156-315.81, CheckPoint156-315.81 exam dumps pdf, 156-315.81 online lab simulation, 156-315.81 reliable test collection pdf, 156-315.81 valid exam materials, 156-315.81 valid exam syllabus, 156-315.81 valid exam vce, new 156-315.81 exam tutorialLeave a Comment on [UPDATED 2024] Free CheckPoint 156-315.81 Exam Questions Self-Assess Preparation [Q154-Q178]

[UPDATED 2024] Free CheckPoint 156-315.81 Exam Questions Self-Assess Preparation

156-315.81 Free Sample Questions to Practice One Year Update

The 156-315.81 exam covers a wide range of topics, including network security, threat prevention, VPN technologies, security management, and advanced troubleshooting. 156-315.81 exam is designed to test the candidate’s knowledge of the latest security technologies and best practices used in securing enterprise networks. 156-315.81 exam is based on the latest version of Check Point’s R81 software, which includes advanced threat prevention capabilities and enhanced security management features.

 

QUESTION 154
After verifying that API Server is not running, how can you start the API Server?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
After verifying that API Server is not running, you can start the API Server by running the command “api start” in Expert mode. This command will start the API Server process (cpm_api) and enable it to run automatically after reboot. You can also use the command “api enable” to enable the API Server without starting it immediately. The other commands are either incorrect or not related to the API Server. The set api command is used in CLISH mode to configure API settings, such as port, domain, or certificate. The mgmt_cli command is used in Expert mode to execute API commands, such as login, logout, show, set, etc. References:
[API Server]

QUESTION 155
What is the default shell for the command line interface?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
What is the default shell for the command line interface? The default shell for the command line interface is Clish. Clish is a shell that provides a menu-based interface for configuring various system settings, such as network interfaces, routing, DNS, NTP, SNMP, SSH, etc. Clish also provides help and completion features for easier navigation. To switch from Clish to Expert mode, which allows running Linux commands, use the command expert. References: Gaia Administration Guide R81, page 29.

QUESTION 156
Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

 
 
 
 
Detecting and blocking malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected is not a feature associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade. This feature is part of the Check Point SandBlast Network solution, which uses Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction technologies to prevent zero-day attacks. The other features are part of the URL Filtering and Application Control Blade, which allows you to control access to web applications and sites based on various criteria. Reference: URL Filtering and Application Control Administration Guide

QUESTION 157
Firewall polices must be configured to accept VRRP packets on the GAiA platform if it Firewall software. The Multicast destination assigned by the internet Assigned Number Authority (IANA) for VRRP is:

 
 
 
 
Explanation
The multicast destination assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) for VRRP is
224.0.0.18. This is a reserved multicast address that is used by VRRP routers to communicate with each other and announce their priority and state. Firewall policies must be configured to accept VRRP packets on the Gaia platform if it runs Firewall software. Otherwise, VRRP packets will be dropped by default. References:
[Configuring VRRP on Gaia]

QUESTION 158
Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
Application Control is the software blade that provides Application Security and identity control. It allows administrators to define granular policies based on users or groups to identify, block or limit the usage of web applications and widgets. Application Control also integrates with Identity Awareness to provide user-level visibility and control. References: Training & Certification | Check Point Software, Check Point Resource Library

QUESTION 159
What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
Captive Portal is a feature of Identity Awareness Software Blade that enables you to identify users who are not authenticated by other methods, such as Active Directory or VPN. Captive Portal redirects users to a web page where they can enter their credentials and be authenticated by an external server, such as LDAP or RADIUS.
After authentication, users can access the Internet and corporate resources according to the security policy rules that apply to their identity.
The references are:
Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide, page 9
Configuring Browser-Based Authentication in SmartConsole

QUESTION 160
If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
The command cphaprob igmp can be used to display the Multicast MAC address of a cluster. This command shows the IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) information for each cluster interface, including the VRID (Virtual Router ID), the Multicast IP address, and the Multicast MAC address3. The other commands do not show the Multicast MAC address information. References: Check Point R81 ClusterXL Administration Guide

QUESTION 161
Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ____ all traffic.
However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ______ all traffic.

 
 
 
 
Explanation
In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is drop all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is accept all traffic. The Implied last rule is a rule that is automatically added at the end of each policy layer and defines what to do with traffic that does not match any of the user-defined rules. The default actions for each policy layer can be changed in the Global Properties or in the layer properties. References: R81 Security Management Administration Guide, page 30.

QUESTION 162
What kind of information would you expect to see using the sim affinity command?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 163
Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

 
 
 
 
Log Consolidator is NOT a SmartEvent component. SmartEvent is a unified security event management solution that provides visibility, analysis, and reporting of security events across multiple Check Point products. SmartEvent consists of three main components: SmartEvent Server, Correlation Unit, and Log Server. SmartEvent Server is responsible for storing and displaying security events in SmartConsole and SmartEventWeb. Correlation Unit is responsible for collecting and correlating logs from various sources and generating security events based on predefined or custom scenarios. Log Server is responsible for receiving and indexing logs from Security Gateways and other Check Point modules. Log Consolidator is not a valid component or blade of SmartEvent.

QUESTION 164
You are investigating issues with to gateway cluster members are not able to establish the first initial cluster synchronization. What service is used by the FWD daemon to do a Full Synchronization?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
The FWD daemon uses TCP port 256 to do a Full Synchronization between gateway cluster members. This port is also used for other synchronization types, such as Delta Synchronization and Accelerated Synchronization. The FWD daemon is responsible for synchronizing the connections table, NAT table, and VPN keys between cluster members. References: ClusterXL Administration Guide, SK25977 – Ports Used by Check Point Software

QUESTION 165
The admin lost access to the Gaia Web Management Interface but he was able to connect via ssh. How can you check if the web service is enabled, running and which port is used?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 166
R81.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
R81.10 management server can manage gateways with versions R75.20 and higher. However, some features may not be supported on older gateway versions. For example, R81 introduces a new feature called Infinity Threat Prevention, which requires R81 gateways to work properly. Therefore, it is recommended to upgrade your gateways to the latest version to take advantage of all the new features and enhancements in R81.

QUESTION 167
Customer’s R81 management server needs to be upgraded to R81.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 168
Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

 
 
 
 
After installing a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU, the administrator is required to perform one additional task, which is to increase the number of kernel instances using cpconfig. This is because by default, only one kernel instance is enabled on a Security Gateway. To take advantage of multiple cores, the administrator needs to configure more kernel instances according to the number of cores available on the CPU. Reference: Configuring CoreXL

QUESTION 169
Which Queue in the Priority Queue has the maximum priority?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
The Priority Queue is a feature that allows the firewall to prioritize certain types of traffic over others, such as control and routing traffic, when the CPU load is high. The Priority Queue has four levels of priority: Control, Routing, High Priority and Heavy Data Queue1. The Control level has the highest priority and is reserved for firewall control traffic, such as policy installation and synchronization. The Routing level has the second highest priority and is used for routing protocols, such as OSPF and BGP. The High Priority level has the third highest priority and is used for user-defined traffic that needs to be prioritized, such as VoIP or video conferencing. The Heavy Data Queue level has the lowest priority and is used for bulk data transfer, such as FTP or HTTP2. Therefore, the correct answer is C.
References: 1: Firewall Priority Queues 2: Firewall Priority Queues setting

QUESTION 170
Which Check Point process provides logging services, such as forwarding logs from Gateway to Log Server, providing Log Export API (LEA) & Event Logging API (EL-A) services.

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 171
After making modifications to the $CVPNDIR/conf/cvpnd.C file, how would you restart the daemon?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 172
Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

 
 
 
 
The statement that is not true about Delta synchronization is Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161. Delta synchronization is a mechanism that transfers only the changes in the kernel tables between cluster members, instead of sending the entire tables. It uses UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116, not 81612. The other statements are true about Delta synchronization. Reference: Check Point R81 ClusterXL Administration Guide

QUESTION 173
What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?

 
 
 
 
ClusterXL is a clustering technology that provides high availability and load sharing for Security Gateways. ClusterXL uses a proprietary protocol called Check Point Cluster Protocol (CCP) to communicate between cluster members. CCP has two main functions: Health Check and State Synchronization. Health Check is the mechanism that monitors the status and availability of each cluster member and determines which member is the active one. State Synchronization is the mechanism that synchronizes the connection and NAT tables between cluster members to ensure a smooth failover in case of a member failure. CCP uses UDP port 8116 for both Health Check and State Synchronization messages. The other options are not correct because:
A) CCP and 18190: This option is incorrect because CCP does not use port 18190. Port 18190 is used by Secure Internal Communication (SIC) between Security Gateways and Management Servers.
B) CCP and 257: This option is incorrect because CCP does not use port 257. Port 257 is used by Check Point Security Management Protocol (CPM) for communication between SmartConsole and Management Servers.
D) CPC and 8116: This option is incorrect because there is no such protocol as CPC in ClusterXL.

QUESTION 174
You pushed a policy to your gateway and you cannot access the gateway remotely any more. What command should you use to remove the policy from the gateway by logging in through console access?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
The command that should be used to remove the policy from the gateway by logging in through console access is “fw unloadlocal”. This command will unload all security policies from a gateway or cluster member and allow all traffic to pass through it. This command can be useful for troubleshooting purposes or for emergency access to a gateway. References: [Check Point R81 CLI Reference Guide]

QUESTION 175
What does the “unknown” SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?

 
 
 
 
The “unknown” SIC status shown on SmartConsole means that there is no connection between the Security Gateway and Security Management Server. SIC stands for Secure Internal Communication, which is a mechanism that ensures secure communication between Check Point components using certificates and encryption. SIC status can be one of the following: Trust established, Trust expired, Uninitialized, or Unknown. Trust established means that SIC is working properly and the components can communicate securely. Trust expired means that the SIC certificate has expired and needs to be renewed. Uninitialized means that SIC has not been configured yet and needs to be initialized with an activation key. Unknown means that the Security Management Server cannot reach the Security Gateway or vice versa, and therefore cannot verify the SIC status. This could be due to network issues, firewall rules, routing problems, or other causes that prevent connectivity between the components. Reference: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide, page 32-33

QUESTION 176
What kind of information would you expect to see using the sim affinity command?

 
 
 
 
The kind of information that you would expect to see using the sim affinity command is network interfaces and core distribution used for CoreXL. Sim affinity is a command that allows administrators to view and modify the CPU core affinity of network interfaces and SecureXL instances. CoreXL is a technology that improves the performance of the Security Gateway by using multiple cores to handle concurrent connections. The sim affinity command can show which network interfaces and SecureXL instances are bound to which CPU cores, and allow administrators to change the affinity settings.

QUESTION 177
Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
The command to add users to or from existing roles is add rba user <User Name> roles <List>. This command allows you to assign one or more roles to a user in the Gaia database. Roles are collections of permissions that define what actions a user can perform on the system. You can use predefined roles or create your own custom roles. To remove a role from a user, you can use the command delete rba user <User Name> roles <List>.

QUESTION 178
CoreXL is NOT supported when one of the following features is enabled: (Choose three)

 
 
 
 
CoreXL is not supported when one of the following features is enabled: Check Point QoS (Quality of Service), Route-based VPN, IPv6 on IPSO, or Overlapping NAT. CoreXL is a performance-enhancing technology that allows multiple CPU cores to concurrently handle network traffic. IPS is supported by CoreXL and can benefit from its acceleration. Reference: : Check Point Software, Getting Started, CoreXL; : Check Point Software, Getting Started, IPS.

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The Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification exam is a challenging and comprehensive exam that validates the expertise of candidates in managing and administering Check Point Security solutions. Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification exam is designed for professionals who want to develop advanced skills in network security and enhance their career prospects. Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification is recognized globally and is highly valued by employers, making it a worthwhile investment for any IT professional.

 

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