Q242. Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)

Q243. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

Q244. Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

Q245. What is a function of TFTP in network operations?

Q246. What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol on a specific subnet?

Q247. Refer to the exhibit.


A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server.
Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

Q248. Refer to the exhibit.

If all routers on this network run RIPv2, which configuration should you apply to router R3 to produce this routing table?

Q249. Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?

Q250. Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

Q251. Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

Q252. The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements
* Create 8 new subnets
* Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts
* Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet
* A Layer 3 interface is used
Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

Q253.

Refer to the exhibit. Four load-balancing servers are reachable through this router; however, the company is removing all static and default routes on the router.
Server 1 – 10.12.14.14
Server 2 – 192.168.4.4
Server 3 – 209.165.200.5
Server 4 – 209.165.201.26
Which server will handle all traffic after the policy changes take effect?

Q254. Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

Q255. Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a cisco router?

Q256. Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

Q257. Refer to the exhibit.

Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

Q258. If a notice-level message is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

Q259. Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?

Q260. An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

Q261. Which WPA mode uses PSK authentication?

Q262. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must document all Wi-Fi services on a new wireless LAN controller. The Wi-Fi SSID “Office_WLan” has Layer 2 Security. What is determined by this configuration?

Q263. Refer to the exhibit.

PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 1 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?

Q264. Refer to the exhibit.

A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?

Q265. What is the temporary state that switch ports always enter immediately after the boot process when Rapid PVST+ is used?