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[Q35-Q53] Pass AAPC-CPC Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed 100% Cover Real Exam Questions [Dec-2025]

[Q35-Q53] Pass AAPC-CPC Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed 100% Cover Real Exam Questions [Dec-2025]

December 29, 2025 adminAAPC-CPC, Medical TestsAAPC-CPC Exam Notes, AAPC-CPC Free Dumps, AAPC-CPC intereactive testing engine, AAPC-CPC new test collection materials, AAPC-CPC regualer update, AAPC-CPC reliable exam dumps questions, AAPC-CPC valid test cram materials, AAPC-CPC valid test sample questionsLeave a Comment on [Q35-Q53] Pass AAPC-CPC Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed 100% Cover Real Exam Questions [Dec-2025]

Pass AAPC-CPC Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed 100% Cover Real Exam Questions [Dec-2025]

Valid AAPC-CPC test answers & Medical Tests AAPC-CPC exam pdf

Q35. Which is NOT a violation of Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?

 
 
 
 
HIPAA is in place to reduce the level of risk associated with a potential violation and/or breach. In answer C, even though a breach has occurred, the hospital has appropriate preventative measures in place and is not in violation of HIPAA. Leaving a laptop in an unattended vehicle or medical records outside is high-risk behavior that gives opportunity for an unauthorized person to access protected health information (PHI) and/or electronic protected health. In answer D, a medical practice is required to perform a risk analysis to PHI and/or ePHI and recti$ any failures within a timely manner.

Q36. Which antibody test results indicate a current, acute infection?

 
 
 
 
Understanding immunology and antibody results are imperative to proper code selection and to be able to support any necessary repeat testing. Antibody isotypes IgM assist in attacking infectious pathogens and are indicative of an acute infection. Antibody isotypes IgG are formed as an infection subsides and help the body fight against future attacks from the same bacteria. When the results show IgG positive, it indicates immunity. When a patient has an infection, the results will show IgM positive, but as the IgG antibodies haven’t fully formed yet to provide the body with immunity, that result will come back negative.

Q37. Which term describes a procedure in which real-time moving images of an organ are displayed on a screen so that a physician can examine its function and/or structure?

 
 
 
 
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses magnets, radio waves, and a computer to display detailed pictures of the inside of the body. Tomography uses waves of energy to create three- dimensional, computer-generated images of any internal structure. Computed tomography is cross- sectional images of the body obtained by a narrow beam of x-rays that quickly rotates around the body.

Q38. A patient is seen in the emergency room with a thermal burn to the left thigh because of a fire. The patient denies feelings of hypothermi a. Vitals are obtained, and a physical examination reveals that approximately 4% of the body is affected by second-degree burns, and nonviable tissue needs to be removed to avoid the risk of infection. After consent is obtained, the physician debrides the wound, cleanses the area, and applies a gauze. The patient is discharged and told to follow up with their primary care physician in 2 days. What CPT code(s) should be reported for this encounter?

 
 
 
 
When billing for physician services in the emergency room, it is appropriate to report a standalone E/M when the documentation supports its necessity in determining the need for appropriate treatment. Modifier 25 is necessary to the E/M code when being billed alongside a procedure and/or surgery to indicate a separately billable service. In this case, the documentation supports decision-making of moderate complexity. CPT code 99283 meets these criteria, whereas CPT code 99282 reflects a medical decision-making of low complexity and does not accurately portray the services rendered. The emergency room visit is always the first listed code, followed by the procedure and/or surgery performed.

Q39. A female patient experiencing swollen lymph nodes is seen for a follow-up to discuss the results of her open axillary biopsy that occurred last week The results are positive for diffuse large cell lymphom a. The patient is given multiple treatment options, including success rates, risks, and side effects. She opts to begin radiation treatment next week. What CPT and ICD-IO-CM codes should the provider report for this visit?

 
 
 
 
To determine which services to report for this encounter, it is important to understand which services were rendered on the last. The patient had an open biopsy of the axillary lymph nodes (CPT 38525) last week This procedure has a postoperative 90-day global period. This means that any related services provided to the patient within that time are reported with zero-charge CPT
99024. Services such as biopsy results, follow-up incisional care, and any postoperative complications are all inclusive to this code. As the patient was given biopsy results, CPT 99024 should be reported for this encounter. However, CPT guidelines also state that when it comes to diagnostic procedures, “care of the condition for which the diagnostic procedure was performed…
is not included and may be listed separately.” In this case, that care begins with the discussion of treatment options with their identified risks, and the decision to begin radiation. This level of moderate medical decision-making is reported by means of E/M CPT 99214. Modifier 24 is appended to indicate that is it unrelated to postoperative care, and modifier 25 is appended to indicate it is separately identifiable to CPT 99024. ICD-IO-CM crosswalk for lymphoma, diffuse large cell, is C83.34.

Q40. What is the difference between presumptive and definitive testing?

 
 
 
 
A presumptive test reports whether the patient is positive or negative for a specific drug. A definitive test would analyze which specific agent and/or how much of that agent is in the patients’ system.

Q41. During surgery to remove a malignant melanoma from the intestinal tract, one frozen section is sent for pathological consultation to confirm an adequate excision of the margins. A second specimen is also sent, which requires frozen sections on two tissue blocks. What CPT code(s) should the pathologist report?

 
 
 
 
CPT code 88331 is used to report only a single specimen. In this scenario, there are Evo separate specimens being sent to the pathologist. The first specimen, with one frozen section, is reported with CPT code 88331. The second specimen has tv.ro tissue blocks with frozen sections, thus represented by coding 88331 for the first tissue block, followed by 88332 for the additional tissue block CPT code 88329 is inclusive to 88331 and should not be reported separately.

Q42. Code the following adverse effect:
Initial encounter of drug-induced tremors that was caused by Cyclosporin the patient takes for anemi a. The anemia is caused by a current diagnosis of colon cancer.

 
 
 
 
The correct sequencing of the code would be as follows: side effect of the drug. medication that caused the adverse effect and the underlying condition for why the drug is being taken. In this scenario, because the anemia is caused by a malignancy, ICD-IO-CM guidelines state that the malignancy should be the principal diagnosis “followed by the appropriate code for the anemia (such as D63.0, Anemia in neoplastic disease).”

Q43. A female patient presents to her obstetrical office 32 -weeks pregnant for a bi-weekly ultrasound. Code the following technician’s report:
Fetal views obtained via transabdominal ultrasound as follows:
BPD: 32 mm
Femur Length: 63 mm
Head Circumference: 288 mm
Abdominal Circumference: 270 mm
BPP 8/8
NST from 11:15 to 12:17, showing 160 BPM and positive movement activity Doppler shows adequate systolic and diastolic flow velocities of the fetal umbilical artery.

 
 
 
 
CPT 76815 is a limited ultrasound, in which only the fetal heartbeat, position, placental location, and/or volume of amniotic fluid are evaluated. In this scenario, much more was done than a limited study. The ultrasound technician documented age-appropriate fetal measurements, which are supported by CPT 76816. A biophysical profile (BPP) was also done, which monitors the fetus’s movements, tone, and breathing as well as evaluates the volume of amniotic fluid. Each of these elements counts as 2 units of grading to evaluate the general well-being ofthe fetus. The desired score of a BPP is 8/8. Because a fetal nonstress test (NST) was completed in conjunction with a BPP, report CPT 76818 instead of CPT 76819. Modifier TC is used to reflect that only a technical component of the procedure was completed. However, because the patient received these services in an obstetrical office that employs the physicians providing prenatal care and owns the ultrasound equipment the code should be submitted without modifiers TC or 26 to receive 100% reimbursement.

Q44. An established 27-year-old female patient is seen with complaints of fatigue and muscle aches that began 3 days ago. The physician draws two vials of blood, collects a urine sample, and performs a pregnancy test. The patient is instructed to drink 8 ounces of water daily, rest, and follow up in 3 days for her results. What CPT codes should be reported for this encounter?

 
 
 
 
The documentation demonstrates that the number and complexity of problems addressed is low (fatigue and muscle aches are self-limited problems), the amount or complexity of data to be reviewed and analyzed is moderate (three unique tests), and the risk of complications, morbidity, or mortality of patient management is minimal (the patient was advised to drink more water). (To determine the final level of medical decision making, choose the lowest of the highest two elements. In this scenario, the final level of medical decision making is low, and the CPT code is
99213. Vihen reporting a routine venipuncture, use CPT code 36415. CPT code 36410(a) is reported when it is medically necessary for the physician to draw a patient’s blood, and 36416 describes capillary blood collected through a skin prick-certainly not enough to fill two vials. CPT code 99000 can be used to report a specimen being transported to an outside laboratory, but that is unknown in this scenario. A generic urinalysis is reported with CPT code 81002 unless specifically stated that an automated analyzer (81005), a commercial kit (81007), and/or an agar test (81020) was utilized.

Q45. The base unit for anesthesia CPT code 00600 is 10 units. If an anesthesiologist spends 105 minutes in the procedure room with a patient, how many units should be reported for reimbursement?

 
 
 
 
To calculate the total number of units, it is important to understand that anesthesia time is measured in 15-minute intervals (or in fractions thereof). In this scenario, take the total number of minutes spent on the procedure (105) and divide it by 15. The total number of time units is 7. The time units are then added to the base unit (10) for a total of 17 units.

Q46. Code the following procedure note:
A selective catheter is placed into the thoracic aorta, where it is then manipulated into the left coronary artery and followed through into the right common carotid artery. Contrast injections are made, and digital imaging is performed. Upon completion, the catheter is removed, pressure is applied at the puncture site, and the patient is discharged.

 
 
 
 
The left coronary artery and the right common carotid artery would each be considered their own vascular family. Therefore, when the starting point of selective catheterization is the aorta, the left coronary artery would be considered first order (36215) in the vascular family and the right common carotid artery would be considered the second order (36216). Modifier 59 is appended to indicate that a different vascular family was examined in one session. Contrast materials and catheterization into the aorta are inclusive to the nvo procedures and are not to be separately coded.

Q47. A patient relocates after receiving treatment for an arm fracture. The patient schedules an appointment with a new orthopedist to remove the cast. The orthopedic office should report the fracture diagnosis code with the seventh character A to indicate active treatment.

 
 
The statement is false. When a patient is in the healing and/or recovery phase of an injury, the seventh character would be D to indicate that the care is subsequent-whether the provider has treated the patient in the past or not.

Q48. A 74-year-old male patient recently had a bone marrow transplant due to aplastic anemi a. At his follow-up visit with the doctor, his blood is drawn and sent to the laboratory to determine if the engraftment was successful. The laboratory evaluates the immature reticulocyte fraction (IRF) using an automated cell counter and total reticulocyte by way of a manual count. What codes should the laboratory report?

 
 
 
 
When a hematologr procedure that could be billed alone is encompassed in another code, only the most complex of the tvo should be reported. Because CPT 85046 includes the reticulocyte count billing CPT 85044 as secondary despite using a different method would be considered an unbundling of services. Per ICD-IO-CM guidelines, an organ or tissue transplant status code is for use “only if there are no complications or malfunctions of the organ or tissue replaced.” As the testing is to determine whether the engraftment was successful, a bone marrow transplant status code would not be appropriate until deemed by the provider.

Q49. What is NOT a function of the kidneys?

 
 
 
 
The role ofthe kidneys is to filter blood before it is transported back to the heart, remove waste materials from food and medication, and regulate blood pressure by excreting excess sodium.
The ureters propel urine from the kidneys into the bladder.

Q50. Which form is used to make a patient aware of the potential monetary liability they will have if their procedure is not likely to be covered by Medicare?

 
 
 
 
National Coverage Determination is a reference guide for physicians to determine which services are covered by Medicare. The HIPAA Release is a form that must be signed by the patient prior to release of medical records and can be revoked at any time. The HIPAA Privacy Rule is in place to protect the patien& health information.

Q51. Which service is NOT included in the central nervous system assessment?

 
 
 
 
A central nervous system assessment is comprised of multiple screenings that are reported with CPT codes 96105-96146 and includes, but is not limited to, the following elements: use of standardized instruments for staging and rating clinical dementia: evaluation for behavioral symptoms using standardized screening instruments; and development, updating, revision, and/or review of an Advance Care Plan. A review of high-risk medications is also included in the central nervous system assessment; however, if in the same encounter a prescription is issued, the clinician should document and report the treatment with an appropriate E/M.

Q52. A new, 29-year-old female patient is seen for a preventative visit and receives counseling that totals 30 minutes about contraceptive management. How would the provider code the CPT code(s) for this visit?

 
 
 
 
If 99402 is part of a more complex service, it would not be separately identifiable, thus eliminating answer A Because 99385 includes counseling/anticipatory guidance/risk factor reduction interventions, the additional 30 minutes that the provider spent discussing contraceptives would not be considered a significant, separately identifiable E/M service, eliminating answer B. Last, because time is not a factor when selecting a preventative service,
99417 reflected in answer C, indicating a prolonged outpatient E/M service totaling 30 minutes would not apply.

Q53. A 45-year-old female patient with urinary incontinence is treated by means of a Burch procedure. The patient is morbidly obese. What CPT and ICD-IO-CM codes should be reported by the surgeon?

 
 
 
 
When choosing betvteen CPT 51840 and 51841, consider that obesity reduces the operative field, increases surgical time, and poses difficulties in surgical technique. It is therefore considered one of several complicating factors to this surgery because it has an abdominal approach.
Additionally, although the obesity is not the reason for the surgical encounter, it nevertheless should be coded due to the impact it has on the procedure.

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