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New 2022 Realistic CISSP Dumps Test Engine Exam Questions in here [Q36-Q56]

New 2022 Realistic CISSP Dumps Test Engine Exam Questions in here [Q36-Q56]

May 4, 2022 adminCISSP, ISCCISSP new test bootcamp, CISSP Pass4sure study materials, CISSP reliable test collection free, CISSP simulated test, new CISSP test sample onlineLeave a Comment on New 2022 Realistic CISSP Dumps Test Engine Exam Questions in here [Q36-Q56]

New 2022 Realistic CISSP Dumps Test Engine Exam Questions in here

Updated Official licence for CISSP Certified by CISSP Dumps PDF

NEW QUESTION 36
Which of the following are PRIMARY elements that are required when designing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

 
 
 
 
The most critical piece to disaster recovery and continuity planning is management support. They must be convinced of its necessity. Therefore, a business case must be made to obtain this support. The business case can include current vulnerabilities, regulatory and legal obligations, current status of recovery plans, and recommendations. Management will mostly concerned with cost/benefit issues, so several preliminary numbers will need to be gathered and potential losses estimated. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 595 There are four major elements of the BCP process Scope and Plan Initiation – this phase marks the beginning of the BCP process. IT entails creating the scope and other elements needed to define the parameters of the plan. Business Impact Assessment – A BIA is a process used to help business units understand the impact of a disruptive event. This phase includes the execution of a vulnerability assessment Business Continuity Plan Development – This term refers to using the information collection in the BIA to develop the actual business continuity plan. This process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance. Plan Approval and Implementation – This process involves getting the final senior management signoff, creating enterprise-wide awareness of the plan, and implementing a maintenance procedure for updating the plan as needed. -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 380-381

NEW QUESTION 37
In the OSI / ISO model, at what layer are some of the SLIP, CSLIP, PPP control functions are provided?

 
 
 
 
The Data Link layer takes raw data from the physical layer and gives it logical structure. This logic includes information about where the data is meant to go, which computer sends the data, and the overall validity of the bytes sent. The
Data Link layer also controls functions of logical network topologies and physical addressing as well as data transmission synchronization and corrections. SLIP,
CSLIP and PPP provide control functions at the Data Link Layer (layer 2 of the OSI model).

NEW QUESTION 38
Which cable technology refers to the CAT3 and CAT5 categories?

 
 
 
 
Twisted Pair cables currently have two categories in common usage. CAT3 and CAT5.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 72.

NEW QUESTION 39
Which of the following is addressed by Kerberos?

 
 
 
 
Kerberos addresses the confidentiality and integrity of information.
It also addresses primarily authentication but does not directly address availability.
Reference(s) used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten
Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 42
and
https://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc4120txt
and
http://learn-networking.com/network-security/how-kerberos-authentication-works

NEW QUESTION 40
Which choice below is NOT one of the four major aspects of
configuration management?

 
 
 
 
The four major aspects of configuration management are:
Configuration identification
Configuration control
Configuration status accounting
Configuration auditing
These aspects are described earlier in this chapter. Answer ” Configuration product evaluation” is a distracter. Source: NCSC-TG-014-89, Guidelines for Formal Verification
Systems [Purple Book].

NEW QUESTION 41
Which of the following is an issue with signature-based intrusion detection systems?

 
 
 
 
An issue with signature-based ID is that only attack signatures that are stored in their database are detected. New attacks without a signature would not be reported. They do require constant updates in order to maintain their effectiveness.
Reference used for this question: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 49

NEW QUESTION 42
Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification negotiates how security tokens will be issued, renewed and validated? Click on the correct specification in the image below.


Explanation
WS-Trust
The protocol used for issuing security tokens is based on WS-Trust. WS-Trust is a Web service specification that builds on WS-Security. It describes a protocol used for issuance, exchange, and validation of security tokens. WS-Trust provides a solution for interoperability by defining a protocol for issuing and exchanging security tokens, based on token format, namespace, or trust boundaries.
Reference: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff650503.aspx

NEW QUESTION 43
Which of the following groups represents the leading source of computer crime losses?

 
 
 
 
There are some conflicting figures as to which group is a bigger threat hackers or employees. Employees are still considered to the leading source of computer crime losses. Employees often have an easier time gaining access to systems or source code then ousiders or other means of creating computer crimes.
A word of caution is necessary: although the media has tended to portray the threat of cybercrime as existing almost exclusively from the outside, external to a company, reality paints a much different picture. Often the greatest risk of cybercrime comes from the inside, namely, criminal insiders. Information security professionals must be particularly sensitive to the phenomena of the criminal or dangerous insider, as these individuals usually operate under the radar, inside of the primarily outward/external facing security controls, thus significantly increasing the impact of their crimes while leaving few, if any, audit trails to follow and evidence for prosecution.
Some of the large scale crimes committed agains bank lately has shown that Internal
Threats are the worst and they are more common that one would think. The definition of what a hacker is can vary greatly from one country to another but in some of the states in the USA a hacker is defined as Someone who is using resources in a way that is not authorized. A recent case in Ohio involved an internal employee who was spending most of his day on dating website looking for the love of his life. The employee was taken to court for hacking the company resources.
The following answers are incorrect:
hackers. Is incorrect because while hackers represent a very large problem and both the frequency of attacks and overall losses have grown hackers are considered to be a small segment of combined computer fraudsters.
industrial saboteurs. Is incorrect because industrial saboteurs tend to go after trade secrets. While the loss to the organization can be great, they still fall short when compared to the losses created by employees. Often it is an employee that was involved in industrial sabotage.
foreign intelligence officers. Is incorrect because the losses tend to be national secrets.
You really can’t put t cost on this and the number of frequency and occurances of this is less than that of employee related losses.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third
Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 22327-22331). Auerbach Publications. Kindle
Edition.

NEW QUESTION 44
Which of the following methods of providing telecommunications continuity involves the use of an alternative media?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Alternative routing provides two different cables from the local exchange to your site, so you can protect against cable failure as your service will be maintained on the alternative route.
Incorrect Answers:
B: With diverse routing, you can protect not only against cable failure but also against local exchange failure as there are two separate routes from two exchanges to your site.
C: Lang-haul refers to circuits that span large distances, not between your site and the local exchange, such as interstate or international.
D: Last mile circuit protection does not provide an extra connection.
References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Routing_in_the_PSTN

NEW QUESTION 45
Which of the following is NOT a key management issue?

 
 
 
 
The correct answer is Key exchange. The other answers are key management issues, but key exchange is a function of the encryption system.

NEW QUESTION 46
Which of the following is a method of multiplexing data where a communication channel is divided into an arbitrary number of variable bit-rate digital channels or data streams. This method allocates bandwidth dynamically to physical channels having information to transmit?

 
 
 
 
Statistical multiplexing is a type of communication link sharing, very similar to
dynamic bandwidth allocation (DBA). In statistical multiplexing, a communication channel is
divided into an arbitrary number of variable bit-rate digital channels or data streams. The link
sharing is adapted to the instantaneous traffic demands of the data streams that are transferred
over each channel. This is an alternative to creating a fixed sharing of a link, such as in general
time division multiplexing (TDM) and frequency division multiplexing (FDM). When performed
correctly, statistical multiplexing can provide a link utilization improvement, called the statistical
multiplexing gain.
Generally, the methods for multiplexing data include the following :
Time-division multiplexing (TDM): information from each data channel is allocated bandwidth
based on pre-assigned time slots, regardless of whether there is data to transmit. Time-division multiplexing is used primarily for digital signals, but may be applied in analog multiplexing in which two or more signals or bit streams are transferred appearing simultaneously as sub-channels in one communication channel, but are physically taking turns on the channel. The time domain is divided into several recurrent time slots of fixed length, one for each sub-channel. A sample byte or data block of sub-channel 1 is transmitted during time slot 1, sub-channel 2 during time slot 2, etc. One TDM frame consists of one time slot per sub-channel plus a synchronization channel and sometimes error correction channel before the synchronization. After the last sub-channel, error correction, and synchronization, the cycle starts all over again with a new frame, starting with the second sample, byte or data block from sub-channel 1, etc.
Asynchronous time-division multiplexing (ATDM): information from data channels is allocated bandwidth as needed, via dynamically assigned time slots. ATM provides functionality that is similar to both circuit switching and packet switching networks: ATM uses asynchronous time-division multiplexing, and encodes data into small, fixed-sized packets (ISO-OSI frames) called cells. This differs from approaches such as the Internet Protocol or Ethernet that use variable sized packets and frames. ATM uses a connection-oriented model in which a virtual circuit must be established between two endpoints before the actual data exchange begins. These virtual circuits may be “permanent”, i.e. dedicated connections that are usually preconfigured by the service provider, or “switched”, i.e. set up on a per-call basis using signalling and disconnected when the call is terminated.
Frequency division multiplexing (FDM): information from each data channel is allocated bandwidth based on the signal frequency of the traffic. In telecommunications, frequency-division multiplexing (FDM) is a technique by which the total bandwidth available in a communication medium is divided into a series of non-overlapping frequency sub-bands, each of which is used to carry a separate signal. This allows a single transmission medium such as the radio spectrum, a cable or optical fiber to be shared by many signals.
Reference used for this question: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Statistical_multiplexing and http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Frequency_division_multiplexing and Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, Chapter 3: Technical Infrastructure and Operational Practices (page 114).

NEW QUESTION 47
*Directive controls are a form of change management policy and procedures. Which of the following subsections are recommended as part of the change management process?

 
 
 
 
Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=9gCn86CmsNQC&pg=PA570&lpg=PA570& dq=CISSP+Directive+controls+are+a+form+of+change+management+policy+and+procedures.+Which+o
&source=bl&ots=riGvVpSS3E&sig=ACfU3U3dLYheW_GfTZcAYfN97fnDFlMmZg&hl=en&sa=X& ved=2ahUKEwjukoqK96npAhULtRoKHZEpBmcQ6AEwAHoECBQQAQ#v=onepage& q=CISSP%20Directive%20controls%20are%20a%20form%20of%20change%20management%20policy
&f=false

NEW QUESTION 48
Knowledge-based Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) are more common than:

 
 
 
 
Knowledge-based IDS are more common than behavior-based ID systems. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 63. Application-Based IDS – “a subset of HIDS that analyze what’s going on in an application using the transaction log files of the application.” Source: Official ISC2 CISSP CBK Review Seminar Student Manual Version 7.0 p. 87 Host-Based IDS – “an implementation of IDS capabilities at the host level. Its most significant difference from NIDS is intrusion detection analysis, and related processes are limited to the boundaries of the host.” Source: Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP CBK – p. 197 Network-Based IDS – “a network device, or dedicated system attached to the network, that monitors traffic traversing the network segment for which it is integrated.” Source: Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP CBK – p. 196 CISSP for dummies a book that we recommend for a quick overview of the 10 domains has nice and concise coverage of the subject: Intrusion detection is defined as real-time monitoring and analysis of network activity and data for potential vulnerabilities and attacks in progress. One major limitation of current intrusion detection system (IDS) technologies is the requirement to filter false alarms lest the operator (system or security administrator) be overwhelmed with data. IDSes are classified in many different ways, including active and passive, network-based and host-based, and knowledge-based and behavior-based: Active and passive IDS An active IDS (now more commonly known as an intrusion prevention system – IPS) is a system that’s configured to automatically block suspected attacks in progress without any intervention required by an operator. IPS has the advantage of providing real-time corrective action in response to an attack but has many disadvantages as well. An IPS must be placed in-line along a
network boundary; thus, the IPS itself is susceptible to attack. Also, if false alarms and legitimate
traffic haven’t been properly identified and filtered, authorized users and applications may be
improperly denied access. Finally, the IPS itself may be used to effect a Denial of Service (DoS)
attack by intentionally flooding the system with alarms that cause it to block connections until no
connections or bandwidth are available.
A passive IDS is a system that’s configured only to monitor and analyze network traffic activity and
alert an operator to potential vulnerabilities and attacks. It isn’t capable of performing any
protective or corrective functions on its own. The major advantages of passive IDSes are that
these systems can be easily and rapidly deployed and are not normally susceptible to attack
themselves.
Network-based and host-based IDS
A network-based IDS usually consists of a network appliance (or sensor) with a Network Interface
Card (NIC) operating in promiscuous mode and a separate management interface. The IDS is
placed along a network segment or boundary and monitors all traffic on that segment.
A host-based IDS requires small programs (or agents) to be installed on individual systems to be
monitored. The agents monitor the operating system and write data to log files and/or trigger
alarms. A host-based IDS can only monitor the individual host systems on which the agents are
installed; it doesn’t monitor the entire network.
Knowledge-based and behavior-based IDS
A knowledge-based (or signature-based) IDS references a database of previous attack profiles
and known system vulnerabilities to identify active intrusion attempts. Knowledge-based IDS is
currently more common than behavior-based IDS.
Advantages of knowledge-based systems include the following:
It has lower false alarm rates than behavior-based IDS.
Alarms are more standardized and more easily understood than behavior-based IDS.
Disadvantages of knowledge-based systems include these:
Signature database must be continually updated and maintained.
New, unique, or original attacks may not be detected or may be improperly classified.
A behavior-based (or statistical anomaly-based) IDS references a baseline or learned pattern of
normal system activity to identify active intrusion attempts. Deviations from this baseline or pattern
cause an alarm to be triggered.
Advantages of behavior-based systems include that they
Dynamically adapt to new, unique, or original attacks.
Are less dependent on identifying specific operating system vulnerabilities.
Disadvantages of behavior-based systems include
Higher false alarm rates than knowledge-based IDSes.
Usage patterns that may change often and may not be static enough to implement an effective behavior-based IDS.

NEW QUESTION 49
A client has reviewed a vulnerability assessment report and has stated it is inaccurate. The client states that the vulnerabilities listed are not valid because the host’s Operating system (OS) was not properly detected.
Where in the vulnerability assessment process did the error MOST likely occur?

 
 
 
 

NEW QUESTION 50
What size is an MD5 message digest (hash)?

 
 
 
 
MD5 is a one-way hash function producing a 128-bit message digest from the input
message, through 4 rounds of transformation. MD5 is specified as an Internet Standard
(RFC1312).
Reference(s) used for this question:
TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.

NEW QUESTION 51
A momentary power outage is a:

 
 
 
 

NEW QUESTION 52
An Ethernet address is composed of how many bits?

 
 
 
 
An Ethernet address is a 48-bit address that is hard-wired into the Network Interface Cards
(NIC) of the network node.
A Media Access Control address (MAC address) is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications on the physical network segment. MAC addresses are used for numerous network technologies and most IEEE 802 network technologies, including
Ethernet. Logically, MAC addresses are used in the Media Access Control protocol sub- layer of the OSI reference model.
MAC addresses are most often assigned by the manufacturer of a network interface card
(NIC) and are stored in its hardware, the card’s read-only memory, or some other firmware mechanism. If assigned by the manufacturer, a MAC address usually encodes the manufacturer’s registered identification number and may be referred to as the burned-in address. It may also be known as an Ethernet hardware address (EHA), hardware address or physical address. A network node may have multiple NICs and will then have one unique MAC address per NIC.
MAC addresses are formed according to the rules of one of three numbering name spaces managed by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE): MAC-48, EUI-48, and EUI-64. The IEEE claims trademarks on the names EUI-48 and EUI-64, in which EUI is an abbreviation for Extended Unique Identifier.
Reference(s) used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten
Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 87.
and
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MAC_address

NEW QUESTION 53
The definition A relatively small amount (when compared to primary memory) of very high speed RAM, which holds the instructions and data from primary memory, that has a high probability of being accessed during the currently executing portion of a program refers to what category of computer memory?

 
 
 
 
Cache logic attempts to predict which instructions and data in main (primary) memory will be used by a currently executing program. It then moves these items to the higher speed cache in anticipation of the CPU requiring these programs and data. Properly designed caches can significantly reduce the apparent main memory access time and thus increase the speed of program execution.
*Answer secondary memory is a slower memory (such as a magnetic disk) that provides non-volatile storage.
*Real or primary memory is directly addressable by the CPU and is used for the storage of instructions and data associated with the program that is being executed. This memory is usually high-speed, Random Access Memory (RAM).
*Answer virtual memory uses secondary memory in conjunction with primary memory to present the CPU with a larger, apparent address space of the real memory locations.

NEW QUESTION 54
Which choice below is NOT a way to get Windows NT passwords?

 
 
 
 
The /etc/passwd file is a Unix system file. The NT Security Accounts Manager, SAM, contains the usernames and encrypted passwords of all local (and domain, if the server is a domain controller) users. The SAM uses an older, weaker LanManager hash that can be broken easily by tools like L0phtcrack. Physical access to the NT server and the rdisks must be controlled. The Sam._ file in the repair directory must be deleted after creation of an rdisk. Pwdump and pwdump2 are utilities that allow someone with Administrator rights to target the Local Security Authority Subsystem, isass.exe, from a remote system. Source: Hacking Exposed by Stuart McClure, Joel Scambray, and George Kurtz (Osborne, 1999).

NEW QUESTION 55
Which one of the following describes a covert timing channel?

 
 
 
 
A covert channel in which one process signals information to another by modulating its own use of system resources (for example, CPU time) in such a way that this manipulation affects the real response time observed by the second process. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 929

NEW QUESTION 56
Which of the following is an example of least privilege?

 
 
 
 
Least Privilege embodies the concept that users or operators should be granted the lowest level of system access or system rights that allows them to perform their job.
* Answer “An operator does not know more about the system than the minimum required to do the job” is need-to-know
* “The operators’ duties are frequently rotated” is job rotation
* “An operator cannot generate and verify transactions alone” is separation of duties.

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Introduction of CISSP Exam

The CISSP certification is a globally recognized certification that utilizes a unique CBK (Credential Body of Knowledge) methodology. The CISSP credential is defined as conforming to the requirements of NCEES, the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), and the International Information Systems Security Certification Consortium (ISC). The test will not earn a CISSP valid certification. The new CISSP Exam aims to deliver what the professionals need most the ability to demonstrate that they can apply their knowledge and skills effectively on the jobsite. This exam includes questions from five of the ten domains of knowledge: Access Controls, Application Development Security, Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Planning, Cryptography, and Risk Management which are also covered in our CISSP Dumps. The CISSP certification exam was updated in May 2012. This guide provides an overview of the CISSP (ISC)2 domains and their respective weighting within the examination to further assist candidates with their studies. The guide also provides guidance on how to prepare for the exam, including how to use the ISC2 CBK (Credential Body of Knowledge) to help develop an individualized study plan. The guide also lists sample questions that can be used as part of a final review prior to taking the exam.

 

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