Skip to content

Prepaway Exam Dumps

Best High Pass-Rate Exam Dumps

  • HOME
  • ALL EXAMS
  • Cisco
  • SAP
  • Huawei
  • Avaya
  • IBM
  • Amazon
  • Contact
  • HOME
  • ALL EXAMS
  • Cisco
  • SAP
  • Huawei
  • Avaya
  • IBM
  • Amazon
  • Contact

Tag Archives: OMSB_OEN latest study guide free

  1.   »  
  2. Tag Archives: OMSB_OEN latest study guide free

Tag: OMSB_OEN latest study guide free

[Q42-Q59] Pass OMSB Omani Examination for Nurses Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed Updated Dump from PrepAwayExam!

[Q42-Q59] Pass OMSB Omani Examination for Nurses Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed Updated Dump from PrepAwayExam!

November 12, 2024 adminOMSB_OEN, OMSBcomposite test OMSB_OEN price, new OMSB_OEN exam tutorial, OMSB_OEN certification book torrent, OMSB_OEN latest study guide free, OMSB_OEN new test camp free, OMSB_OEN questions and answers free, OMSB_OEN trustworthy exam torrent, OMSB_OEN valid dumpsLeave a Comment on [Q42-Q59] Pass OMSB Omani Examination for Nurses Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed Updated Dump from PrepAwayExam!

Pass OMSB Omani Examination for Nurses Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed Updated Dump from PrepAwayExam!

Pass OMSB_OEN Exam with 99 Questions – Verified By PrepAwayExam

Q42. A staff nurse was entering patient’s clinical notes in the computer, and had to leave to attend an immediate call without completion of recording. Another nurse used the account of the previous nurse to enter her notes.
Which of the following BEST describes the ethical issue that was committed?

 
 
 
 
The situation describes a breach of confidentiality, which occurs when private patient information is accessed or disclosed without proper authorization.
* Negligence: This refers to the failure to provide the standard of care that a reasonably prudent person would provide in a similar situation, but it doesn’t specifically address unauthorized access to patient information.
* Malpractice: This is a type of negligence by a professional, which results in harm to the patient, and usually involves direct patient care rather than record-keeping issues.
* Breach of Privacy: This involves the inappropriate disclosure of private information. In this case, using someone else’s account does not directly disclose patient information to unauthorized parties.
* Breach of Confidentiality: This specifically addresses the unauthorized access or use of patient information, which is exactly what happened when another nurse used the first nurse’s account to enter notes.
References:
* Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Guidelines
* American Nurses Association (ANA): Code of Ethics for Nurses with Interpretive Statements

Q43. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action in the termination phase of the home visit?

 
 
 
 
In the termination phase of a home visit, the appropriate nursing action is to review important teaching topics discussed during the visit. This ensures that the family understands the care instructions and can ask any final questions. Validating the health history and documenting the care provided are important but are typically part of the initial or ongoing phases of the visit. Determining readiness for future visits is also important but is secondary to ensuring the family understands the teaching provided.

Q44. A nursing instructor provides a session to a group of nursing students about the importance of anion gap in an acid base imbalance.
Which of the following statements if made by the nursing student would indicate the understanding of the teaching?

 
 
 
 
* Understanding Anion Gap:
* The anion gap is a calculated value based on the concentrations of cations (positively charged ions) and anions (negatively charged ions) in the blood, used to identify the causes of metabolic acidosis.
* Normal and Abnormal Values:
* Normal Anion Gap:Typically ranges from 8-12 mEq/L, though some sources consider 6-12 mEq/L as normal.
* High Anion Gap (> 12):Indicates metabolic acidosis, often due to conditions like ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis, or ingestion of toxins.
* Low Anion Gap (< 8):Not typically associated with metabolic alkalosis; other conditions like hypoalbuminemia may cause it.
* Clinical Relevance:
* Anion gap helps clinicians determine the underlying cause of acid-base imbalances and guide appropriate treatment.
References:
* American Association for Clinical Chemistry (AACC)
* Mayo Clinic on Anion Gap

Q45. The doctor heard a staff nurse saying “That doctor is incompetent”.
The doctor can file a complaint against the staff nurse for:

 
 
 
 
The situation described is one where a verbal statement is made that can harm a doctor’s reputation. This is best described as slander.
* Libel: Libel refers to written defamation, not spoken.
* Assault: Assault involves a threat or attempt to physically harm someone, which is not relevant here.
* Slander: Slander refers to spoken defamation. The nurse’s verbal statement about the doctor’s competence falls under this category.
* Malpractice: Malpractice involves professional negligence that causes harm to a patient, not defamation.
References:
* American Nurses Association (ANA): Code of Ethics for Nurses
* Legal Aspects of Nursing: Documentation, Confidentiality, and Defamation

Q46. A nurse visited a postpartum mother who delivered a baby boy 3 days ago. During assessment, the nurse suspects that the mother is having postpartum depression.
Which behavior suggests the condition in the mother?

 
 
 
 
* Postpartum Depression Symptoms:
* Postpartum depression can manifest in various ways, affecting the mother’s ability to care for herself and her baby.
* Behavioral Indicators:
* Euthymia:Indicates normal mood, not a sign of depression.
* Eating Too Little:Can be a symptom but not as specific to postpartum depression.
* Weakness to Care for the Baby:A significant indicator, as it shows the mother’s lack of energy, interest, or capability to perform daily tasks related to baby care.
* Difficulty Breastfeeding:Could be due to various reasons and not solely indicative of depression.
References:
* American Psychological Association (APA) on Postpartum Depression
* Mayo Clinic guidelines on Postpartum Depression

Q47. A client with schizophrenia is placed on chlorpromazine 50 mg PO bid, and Benztropine 2 mg PO bid PRN.
Which of the following nursing assessment findings would indicate a need to administer Benztropine?

 
 
 
 
Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication that can cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as muscle spasms and tremors. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication often prescribed to manage these side effects.
If a client on chlorpromazine develops muscle spasms and tremors, it indicates EPS, and administering Benztropine would help alleviate these symptoms. The other options, such as severe agitation, sore throat, or suicidal thoughts, are not directly related to the need for Benztropine.

Q48. A nurse caring for a 52-year-old patient who is scheduled for cardiac surgery understands that this patient would be experiencing which of the following type of stressors?

 
 
 
 
* Types of Stressors in Preoperative Patients:
* Social:Related to interactions with family, friends, and community.
* Physical:Directly affecting the body, such as pain or physical disability.
* Physiological:Body’s physical response to stress.
* Psychological:Mental and emotional response to stressors, including anxiety, fear, and worry about the surgery and its outcomes.
* Stressors for Cardiac Surgery Patients:
* Psychological:Patients scheduled for cardiac surgery often experience significant psychological stress due to fear of the procedure, potential complications, and concerns about recovery.
References:
* American Psychological Association (APA) on Stress and Surgery
* Mayo Clinic on Preoperative Anxiety and Stress Management

Q49. The nurse cares for a 60-year-old patient who is post renal transplant and on Sandimmune (Cyclosporine).
While assessing the patient the nurse observed signs of septic shock.
Which of the following is a risk factor that predisposes the patient for septic shock?

 
 
 
 
* Post Renal Transplant Care:
* Patients who undergo renal transplants are prescribed immunosuppressive medications like Cyclosporine (Sandimmune) to prevent organ rejection.
* Risk Factors for Septic Shock:
* Age:Older adults have a higher risk of infections, but age alone is not the primary factor for septic shock in this context.
* Multiple Surgeries:Increase the risk of infection but not as significant as immunosuppression.
* Immunosuppression:The primary risk factor as it weakens the immune system, making the patient highly susceptible to infections leading to septic shock.
* History of Medication Sensitivity:Important but less relevant to septic shock risk.
References:
* National Institutes of Health (NIH) on post-transplant care
* Mayo Clinic on Septic Shock

Q50. The following term refers to the type of abortion in which the fetus dies in the uterus but is not expelled:

 
 
 
 
A missed abortion refers to a situation where the fetus dies in the uterus but is not expelled. This condition is also known as a silent miscarriage. The woman may not experience the typical symptoms of miscarriage, such as bleeding or cramping, and the diagnosis is often made during a routine ultrasound when no fetal heartbeat is detected. Complete abortion involves the complete expulsion of fetal tissue, inevitable abortion is when the miscarriage cannot be stopped, and threatened abortion refers to any bleeding in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy without cervical dilation.

Q51. A nurse is caring for a patient with HIV who manifest chronic diarrhea, anorexia, a history of oral candidiasis, and weight loss.
Which dietary instruction would be included in the teaching plan?

 
 
 
 
For a patient with HIV who is experiencing chronic diarrhea, anorexia, and weight loss, a high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet is recommended. This type of diet helps maintain muscle mass, provides energy, and supports overall nutritional status, which is critical for patients with HIV. Eating three large meals per day may not be practical due to anorexia and gastrointestinal symptoms; smaller, more frequent meals are often better tolerated. A low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet would not meet the nutritional needs, and unpasteurized dairy products pose a risk of foodborne infections.

Q52. A mother of a newborn is diagnosed with breast cancer, the surgeon recommended to carry out an emergency operation.
According to Freud’s theory, which stage of newborn development is being affected?

 
 
 
 
According to Freud’s theory of psychosexual development, the stage affected in a newborn is the oral stage.
* Oral Stage: This stage occurs from birth to about 18 months of age, where the infant’s pleasure centers on the mouth through activities like sucking and biting.
* Anal Stage: This stage follows the oral stage, from 18 months to 3 years, focusing on bowel and bladder control.
* Phallic Stage: This occurs from 3 to 6 years, focusing on the genitals and the differences between males and females.
* Latent Stage: This stage occurs from 6 years to puberty, characterized by dormant sexual feelings and a focus on social and intellectual skills.
References:
* Freud, S. (1905). Three Essays on the Theory of Sexuality.
* National Institutes of Health (NIH): Child Development Theories

Q53. Which of the following is an appropriate role of the parents in the teenage-stage of family developmental tasks?

 
 
 
 
During the teenage stage of family development, parents play a crucial role in helping their adolescents balance freedom with responsibility. This includes setting appropriate boundaries, providing guidance, and encouraging independence while ensuring that teenagers understand and meet their responsibilities. It is a critical period where parental support and oversight help teens develop into responsible adults.

Q54. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of aortic dissection is:

 
 
 
 
Poorly controlled hypertension is the most common cause of aortic dissection. Hypertension increases the pressure within the aorta, leading to damage to the aortic wall and making it more susceptible to tearing.
Diabetes, liver disease, and kidney disease can contribute to cardiovascular problems, but theyare not the primary causes of aortic dissection. Managing blood pressure is critical in preventing this life-threatening condition.

Q55. A nurse is providing health instructions for a patient who is being treated for streptococcal pharyngitis.
Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?

 
 
 
 
* Treatment and Contagious Period:
* Streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat) is highly contagious, and patients need to follow specific guidelines to prevent spreading the infection.
* Health Instructions:
* Full course of therapy:Ensures complete eradication of the bacteria and reduces the risk of complications.
* Replace toothbrush:Prevents reinfection from bacteria that may remain on the old toothbrush.
* Avoid sharing food:Prevents transmission of the infection to others.
* Returning to work:Patients should wait until they are no longer contagious, usually 24 hours after starting antibiotic therapy and being fever-free, before returning to work.
References:
* Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines on Strep Throat
* Mayo Clinic guidelines on Streptococcal Pharyngitis

Q56. A nurse aims to establish a respectful therapeutic relationship with a patient.
Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate to achieve this?

 
 
 
 
Establishing a respectful therapeutic relationship involves actively including the client’s ideas, preferences, and opinions in their care planning. This action demonstrates respect for the client’s autonomy and individuality, fostering trust and cooperation. Discussing non-health-related topics may help build rapport but does not directly contribute to a therapeutic relationship. Being congruent and understanding the client’s thoughts and feelings are important but are part of the overall communication process rather than a specific action to establish respect in the relationship.

Q57. A nurse is caring for a patient with bacterial meningitis who develops high-grade fever and nasal discharge.
Which of the following is the FIRST nursing intervention for this patient?

 
 
 
 
The first nursing intervention for a patient with bacterial meningitis who develops a high-grade fever and nasal discharge is to follow infection precautions. This is crucial to prevent the spread of the infection to others.
Bacterial meningitis is highly contagious, and infection control measures such as isolation and wearing protective gear should be implemented immediately upon diagnosis and continued for at least 24 hours after starting antibiotic treatment.

Q58. A nursing director wishes to improve the job performance of a group of medical orderlies who are ineffective in their job.
Using Herzberg’s theory of motivation, what would be the most appropriate motivator?

 
 
 
 
Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation distinguishes between hygiene factors and motivators. Hygiene factors (like pay, working conditions, and benefits) can prevent dissatisfaction but do not create long-term motivation. Motivators, on the other hand, are related to the nature of the work itself and include factors such as achievement, recognition, responsibility, and opportunities for growth. Offering opportunities for achievement and recognition is a motivator according to Herzberg’s theory and would likely improve job performance by enhancing job satisfaction and intrinsic motivation.

Q59. A 50-year-old multi-para woman complains of a soft bulge of tissue in her vagina. It is uncomfortable to her and is protruding through her vaginal orifice. The woman expresses her anxiety regarding her situation.
What is the IMMEDIATE action of the nurse?

 
 
 
 
* Soft Bulge in Vagina:
* This symptom could indicate a pelvic organ prolapse, such as a uterine or bladder prolapse, which requires medical evaluation and treatment.
* Immediate Action:
* Referral to Doctor:Immediate referral is necessary for proper diagnosis and to plan appropriate treatment.
* Diet and Reassurance:These are important but secondary actions after the initial medical assessment.
* Kegel Exercises:While beneficial for pelvic floor strengthening, they are not the immediate action in response to a significant prolapse.
References:
* American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG)
* Mayo Clinic Guidelines on Pelvic Organ Prolapse

Loading ... Loading …

Loading

Penetration testers simulate OMSB_OEN exam: https://www.prepawayexam.com/OMSB/braindumps.OMSB_OEN.ete.file.html

Read More

Recent Posts

  • UPDATED [Oct 01, 2026] Pass Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst Exam with Latest Questions [Q46-Q60]
  • Pass Palo Alto Networks SecOps-Generalist Actual Free Exam Q&As Updated Dump Oct 01, 2026 [Q87-Q104]
  • [2026] Earn Quick And Easy Success With ESDP_2025 Dumps [Q55-Q76]
  • The Best AB-730 Exam Study Material and Preparation Test Question Dumps [Q29-Q49]
  • [Sep-2026] Latest Fitness NCSF-CPT Certification Practice Test Questions [Q14-Q34]

Archives

  • October 2026
  • September 2026
  • August 2026
  • July 2026
  • May 2026
  • April 2026
  • March 2026
  • February 2026
  • January 2026
  • December 2025
  • November 2025
  • October 2025
  • September 2025
  • August 2025
  • July 2025
  • April 2025
  • March 2025
  • February 2025
  • January 2025
  • December 2024
  • November 2024
  • October 2024
  • September 2024
  • August 2024
  • July 2024
  • June 2024
  • May 2024
  • March 2024
  • February 2024
  • January 2024
  • December 2023
  • November 2023
  • October 2023
  • September 2023
  • August 2023
  • July 2023
  • June 2023
  • May 2023
  • April 2023
  • March 2023
  • February 2023
  • January 2023
  • December 2022
  • November 2022
  • October 2022
  • September 2022
  • August 2022
  • July 2022
  • June 2022
  • May 2022
  • April 2022

Categories

  • A10 Networks
  • AACE International
  • AAPC
  • ACAMS
  • Adobe
  • AHIMA
  • AICPA
  • Alibaba Cloud
  • Amazon
  • AMP
  • API
  • APICS
  • APM
  • APMG-International
  • Appian
  • Apple
  • ASIS
  • ASQ
  • ATLASSIAN
  • Automation Anywhere
  • Avaya
  • AVIXA
  • Axis
  • BCS
  • BICSI
  • Blue Prism
  • Broadcom
  • CAA Global
  • CFA
  • CheckPoint
  • CII
  • CIMA
  • CIPS
  • Cisco
  • Citrix
  • CIW
  • Cloud Security Alliance
  • Cloudera
  • CompTIA
  • Construction Specifications Institute
  • Copado
  • CrowdStrike
  • CSI
  • CWNP
  • CyberArk
  • DAMA
  • Databricks
  • EC-COUNCIL
  • ECCouncil
  • EMC
  • EPIC
  • Esri
  • EXIN
  • F5
  • Facebook
  • Fitness
  • Fortinet
  • GAQM
  • GARP
  • Genesys
  • GIAC
  • Google
  • Guidewire
  • H3C
  • Hitachi
  • HP
  • HRCI
  • Huawei
  • IAPP
  • IBM
  • IFSE Institute
  • IIA
  • IMA
  • Infor
  • IOFM
  • ISACA
  • ISC
  • ISQI
  • ISTQB
  • ITIL
  • Juniper
  • Linux Foundation
  • Lpi
  • Medical Tests
  • Microsoft
  • MongoDB
  • MSP-Foundation
  • NACE
  • NASM
  • National Payroll Institute
  • NCLEX
  • Network Appliance
  • Nokia
  • Nursing
  • Nutanix
  • NVIDIA
  • Okta
  • OMSB
  • Oracle
  • Palo Alto Networks
  • PCI
  • PECB
  • Pegasystems
  • PMI
  • PRINCE2
  • Proofpoint
  • Psychiatric Rehabilitation Association
  • Python Institute
  • Qlik
  • RCEM
  • RedHat
  • RUCKUS
  • Salesforce
  • SAP
  • SASInstitute
  • Scrum
  • ServiceNow
  • SHRM
  • Sitecore
  • Slack
  • Snowflake
  • SolarWinds
  • Splunk
  • Supermicro
  • Symantec
  • Tableau
  • The Institutes
  • The Open Group
  • UiPath
  • Uncategorized
  • USGBC
  • Veeam
  • VMware
  • WGU

Recent Comments

    Copyright © 2022 Prepaway Exam Dumps. DMCA Privacy Policy Contact US