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[Q14-Q35] Real SSCP dumps – Real ISC dumps PDF in here [Mar-2023]

[Q14-Q35] Real SSCP dumps – Real ISC dumps PDF in here [Mar-2023]

March 29, 2023 adminSSCP, ISCSSCP exam materials, SSCP exam training, SSCP latest test cram, SSCP latest test objectives pdf, SSCP reliable test dumps.zip, SSCP test simulator online, SSCP valid learning materials, SSCP valid test sample questionsLeave a Comment on [Q14-Q35] Real SSCP dumps – Real ISC dumps PDF in here [Mar-2023]

Real SSCP dumps – Real ISC dumps PDF in here [Mar-2023]

Realistic PrepAwayExam SSCP Dumps PDF – 100% Passing Guarantee

Prerequisites

The applicants must possess a minimum of one year of cumulative, full-time, and paid work experience in at least one of the seven domains of the SSCP CBK. Additionally, they must pass the qualifying exam to get the certification. Those individuals who do not possess the required work experience can proceed to take the (ISC)2 SSCP test and earn the Associate of (ISC)2 certificate, while working to gain the required experience to obtain SSCP. In this case, you will need to get two years of experience to get the required expertise for the SSCP certification.

 

Q14. What is used to bind a document to its creation at a particular time?

 
 
 
 
While a digital signature binds a document to the possessor of a particular key, a digital timestamp binds a document to its creation at a particular time.
Trusted timestamping is the process of securely keeping track of the creation and modification time of a document. Security here means that no one – not even the owner of the document – should be able to change it once it has been recorded provided that the timestamper’s integrity is never compromised.
The administrative aspect involves setting up a publicly available, trusted timestamp management infrastructure to collect, process and renew timestamps or to make use of a commercially available time stamping service.
A modern example of using a Digital Timestamp is the case of an industrial research organization that may later need to prove, for patent purposes, that they made a particular discovery on a particular date; since magnetic media can be altered easily, this may be a nontrivial issue. One possible solution is for a researcher to compute and record in a hardcopy laboratory notebook a cryptographic hash of the relevant data file. In the future, should there be a need to prove the version of this file retrieved from a backup tape has not been altered, the hash function could be recomputed and compared with the hash value recorded in that paper notebook.
According to the RFC 3161 standard, a trusted timestamp is a timestamp issued by a trusted third party (TTP) acting as a Time Stamping Authority (TSA). It is used to prove the existence of certain data before a certain point (e.g. contracts, research data, medical records,…) without the possibility that the owner can backdate the timestamps. Multiple TSAs can be used to increase reliability and reduce vulnerability.
The newer ANSI ASC X9.95 Standard for trusted timestamps augments the RFC 3161 standard with data-level security requirements to ensure data integrity against a reliable time source that is provable to any third party. This standard has been applied to authenticating digitally signed data for regulatory compliance, financial transactions, and legal evidence.

Digital TimeStamp
The following are incorrect answers:
Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to achieve high accuracy time synchronization for
computers across a network.
A Certification Authority (CA) is the entity responsible for the issuance of digital certificates.
A Digital Signature provides integrity and authentication but does not bind a document to a
specific time it was created.
Reference used for this question:
http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Trusted_timestamping.gif
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trusted_timestamping

Q15. When a station communicates on the network for the first time, which of the following protocol would search for and find the Internet Protocol (IP) address that matches with a known Ethernet address?

 
 
 
 
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
The RARP protocol sends out a packet, which includes its MAC address and a request to be informed of the IP address that should be assigned to that MAC address.
ARP does the opposite by broadcasting a request to find the Ethernet address that matches a known IP address.
ICMP supports packets containing error, control, and informational messages (e.g. PING).
UDP runs over IP and is used primarily for broadcasting messages over a network.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 87.

Q16. BIA – Business Impact Analysis deals strictly with financial assessment of a loss in relation to business operations?

 
 

Q17. Which of the following outlined how senior management are responsible for the computer and information security decisions that they make and what actually took place within their organizations?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
In 1991, U.S. Federal Sentencing Guidelines were developed to provide judges with courses of action in dealing with white collar crimes. These guidelines provided ways that companies and law enforcement should prevent, detect and report computer crimes. It also outlined how senior management are responsible for the computer and information security decisions that they make and what actually took place within their organizations.

Q18. Which of the following describes a logical form of separation used by secure computing systems?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.

Q19. Which of the following centralized access control mechanisms is the least appropriate for mobile workers accessing the corporate network over analog lines?

 
 
 
 
Section: Access Control
Explanation/Reference:
Call-back allows for a distant user connecting into a system to be called back at a number already listed in a database of trusted users. The disadvantage of this system is that the user must be at a fixed location whose phone number is known to the authentication server. Being mobile workers, users are accessing the system from multiple locations, making call-back inappropriate for them.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 44).

Q20. When preparing a business continuity plan, who of the following is responsible for identifying and prioritizing time-critical systems?

 
 
 
 
Many elements of a BCP will address senior management, such as the statement of importance and priorities, the statement of organizational responsibility, and the statement of urgency and timing. Executive management staff initiates the project, gives final approval and gives ongoing support. The BCP committee directs the planning, implementation, and tests processes whereas functional business units participate in implementation and testing. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 8: Business Continuity Planning and Disaster Recovery Planning (page 275).

Q21. The ability to adjust access control to the exact amount of permission necessary is called ______________.

 
 
 
 

Q22. Which of the following is the primary reason why a user would choose a dial-up modem connection to the Internet when they have a faster, secure Internet connection through the organization’s network?

 
 
 
 
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
All the choices above represent examples of circumventing the organization’s security policy, which is the primary reason why a user would be using a dial-up Internet connection when a secure connection is available through the organization’s network.
Source: STREBE, Matthew and PERKINS, Charles, Firewalls 24seven, Sybex 2000, Chapter 1: Understanding Firewalls.

Q23. What security model is dependent on security labels?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
With mandatory access control (MAC), the authorization of a subject’s access to an object is dependant upon labels, which indicate the subject’s clearance, and the classification or sensitivity of the object. Label- based access control is not defined.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 33).

Q24. Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) is a discipline that:

 
 
 
 
Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) is a discipline that outlines how the proper design of a physical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior. It provides guidance about lost and crime prevention through proper facility contruction and environmental components and procedures.
CPTED concepts were developed in the 1960s. They have been expanded upon and have matured as our environments and crime types have evolved. CPTED has been used not just to develop corporate physical security programs, but also for large-scale activities such as development of neighborhoods, towns, and cities. It addresses landscaping, entrances, facility and neighborhood layouts, lighting, road placement, and traffic circulation patterns. It looks at microenvironments, such as offices and rest-rooms, and macroenvironments, like campuses and cities.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 435). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition. and CPTED Guide Book

Q25. What is an IP routing table?

 
 
 
 
A routing table is used when a destination IP address is not located on the current LAN segment. It consists of a list of station and network addresses and a corresponding gateway IP address further along to which a routing equipment should send packets that match that station or network address. A list of IP addresses and corresponding MAC addresses is an ARP table. A DNS is used to match host names and corresponding IP addresses. The last choice is a distracter. Source: STREBE, Matthew and PERKINS, Charles, Firewalls 24seven, Sybex 2000, Chapter 3: TCP/IP from a Security Viewpoint.

Q26. Buffer overflow and boundary condition errors are subsets of which of the following?

 
 
 
 
In an input validation error, the input received by a system is not properly
checked, resulting in a vulnerability that can be exploited by sending a certain input sequence. There are two important types of input validation errors: buffer overflows (input received is longer than expected input length) and boundary condition error (where an input received causes the system to exceed an assumed boundary). A race condition occurs when there is a delay between the time when a system checks to see if an operation is allowed by the security model and the time when the system actually performs the operation. In an access validation error, the system is vulnerable because the access control mechanism is faulty. In an exceptional condition handling error, the system somehow becomes vulnerable due to an exceptional condition that has arisen.
Source: DUPUIS, Clement, Access Control Systems and Methodology CISSP Open Study Guide, version 1.0, march 2002 (page 105).

Q27. What attack involves the perpetrator sending spoofed packet(s) wich contains the same destination and source IP address as the remote host, the same port for the source and destination, having the SYN flag, and targeting any open ports that are open on the remote host?

 
 
 
 
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
The Land attack involves the perpetrator sending spoofed packet(s) with the SYN flag set to the victim’s machine on any open port that is listening. The packet(s) contain the same destination and source IP address as the host, causing the victim’s machine to reply to itself repeatedly. In addition, most systems experience a total freeze up, where as CTRL-ALT-DELETE fails to work, the mouse and keyboard become non operational and the only method of correction is to reboot via a reset button on the system or by turning the machine off.
The Boink attack, a modified version of the original Teardrop and Bonk exploit programs, is very similar to the Bonk attack, in that it involves the perpetrator sending corrupt UDP packets to the host. It however allows the attacker to attack multiple ports where Bonk was mainly directed to port 53 (DNS).
The Teardrop attack involves the perpetrator sending overlapping packets to the victim, when their machine attempts to re-construct the packets the victim’s machine hangs.
A Smurf attack is a network-level attack against hosts where a perpetrator sends a large amount of ICMP echo (ping) traffic at broadcast addresses, all of it having a spoofed source address of a victim. If the routing device delivering traffic to those broadcast addresses performs the IP broadcast to layer 2 broadcast function, most hosts on that IP network will take the ICMP echo request and reply to it with an echo reply each, multiplying the traffic by the number of hosts responding. On a multi-access broadcast network, there could potentially be hundreds of machines to reply to each packet.
Resources:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Denial-of-service_attack
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/LAND

Q28. Which property ensures that only the intended recipient can access the data and nobody else?

 
 
 
 
Section: Security Operation Adimnistration
Explanation/Reference:
Confidentiality is defined as the property that ensures that only the intended recipient can access the data and nobody else. It is usually achieve using cryptogrphic methods, tools, and protocols.
Confidentiality supports the principle of “least privilege” by providing that only authorized individuals, processes, or systems should have access to information on a need-to-know basis. The level of access that an authorized individual should have is at the level necessary for them to do their job. In recent years, much press has been dedicated to the privacy of information and the need to protect it from individuals, who may be able to commit crimes by viewing the information. Identity theft is the act of assuming one’s identity through knowledge of confidential information obtained from various sources.
The following are incorrect answers:
Capability is incorrect. Capability is relevant to access control. Capability-based security is a concept in the design of secure computing systems, one of the existing security models. A capability (known in some systems as a key) is a communicable, unforgeable token of authority. It refers to a value that references an object along with an associated set of access rights. A user program on a capability-based operating system must use a capability to access an object. Capability-based security refers to the principle of designing user programs such that they directly share capabilities with each other according to the principle of least privilege, and to the operating system infrastructure necessary to make such transactions efficient and secure.
Integrity is incorrect. Integrity protects information from unauthorized modification or loss.
Availability is incorrect. Availability assures that information and services are available for use by authorized entities according to the service level objective.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 9345-9349). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Capability-based_security

Q29. Which of the following encryption methods is known to be unbreakable?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
A One-Time Pad uses a keystream string of bits that is generated completely at random that is used only once. Because it is used only once it is considered unbreakable.
The following answers are incorrect:
Symmetric ciphers. This is incorrect because a Symmetric Cipher is created by substitution and transposition. They can and have been broken
DES codebooks. This is incorrect because Data Encryption Standard (DES) has been broken, it was replaced by Advanced Encryption Standard (AES).
Elliptic Curve Cryptography. This is incorrect because Elliptic Curve Cryptography or ECC is typically used on wireless devices such as cellular phones that have small processors. Because of the lack of processing power the keys used at often small. The smaller the key, the easier it is considered to be breakable. Also, the technology has not been around long enough or tested thourough enough to be considered truly unbreakable.

Q30. Which access model is most appropriate for companies with a high employee turnover?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
The underlying problem for a company with a lot of turnover is assuring that new employees are assigned the correct access permissions and that those permissions are removed when they leave the company.
Selecting the best answer requires one to think about the access control options in the context of a company with a lot of flux in the employee population. RBAC simplifies the task of assigning permissions because the permissions are assigned to roles which do not change based on who belongs to them. As employees join the company, it is simply a matter of assigning them to the appropriate roles and their permissions derive from their assigned role. They will implicitely inherit the permissions of the role or roles they have been assigned to. When they leave the company or change jobs, their role assignment is revoked/changed appropriately.
Mandatory access control is incorrect. While controlling access based on the clearence level of employees and the sensitivity of obects is a better choice than some of the other incorrect answers, it is not the best choice when RBAC is an option and you are looking for the best solution for a high number of employees constantly leaving or joining the company.
Lattice-based access control is incorrect. The lattice is really a mathematical concept that is used in formally modeling information flow (Bell-Lapadula, Biba, etc). In the context of the question, an abstract model of information flow is not an appropriate choice. CBK, pp. 324-325.
Discretionary access control is incorrect. When an employee joins or leaves the company, the object owner must grant or revoke access for that employee on all the objects they own. Problems would also arise when the owner of an object leaves the company. The complexity of assuring that the permissions are added and removed correctly makes this the least desirable solution in this situation.
References
Alll in One, third edition page 165
RBAC is discussed on pp. 189 through 191 of the ISC(2) guide.

Q31. Which of the following is NOT a common category/classification of threat to an IT system?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Hackers are classified as a human threat and not a classification by itself.
All the other answers are incorrect. Threats result from a variety of factors, although they are classified in three types: Natural (e.g., hurricane, tornado, flood and fire), human (e.g. operator error, sabotage, malicious code) or technological (e.g. equipment failure, software error, telecommunications network outage, electric power failure).
Reference:
SWANSON, Marianne, & al., National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), http://csrc.nist.gov/ publications/nistpubs/800-34-rev1/sp800-34-rev1_errata-Nov11-2010.pdf, June 2002 (page 6).

Q32. If your property Insurance has Actual Cash Valuation (ACV) clause, your damaged property will be compensated based on:

 
 
 
 
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
This is called the Actual Cash Value (ACV) or Actual Cost Valuation (ACV) All of the other answers were only detractors. Below you have an explanation of the different types of valuation you could use. It is VERY important for you to validate with your insurer which one applies to you as you could have some very surprising finding the day you have a disaster that takes place.
Replacement Cost
Property replacement cost insurance promises to replace old with new. Generally, replacement of a building must be done on the same premises and used for the same purpose, using materials comparable to the quality of the materials in the damaged or destroyed property.
There are some other limitations to this promise. For example, the cost of repairs or replacement for buildings doesn’t include the increased cost associated with building codes or other laws controlling how buildings must be built today. An endorsement adding coverage for the operation of Building Codes and the increased costs associated with complying with them is available separately – usually for additional premium.
In addition, some insurance underwriters will only cover certain property on a depreciated value (actual cash value – ACV) basis even when attached to the building. This includes awnings and floor coverings, appliances for refrigerating, ventilating, cooking, dishwashing, and laundering. Depreciated value also applies to outdoor equipment or furniture.
Actual Cash Value (ACV)
The ACV is the default valuation clause for commercial property insurance. It is also known as depreciated value, but this is not the same as accounting depreciated value. The actual cash value is determined by first calculating the replacement value of the property. The next step involves estimating the amount to be subtracted, which reflects the building’s age, wear, and tear.
This amount deducted from the replacement value is known as depreciation. The amount of depreciation is reduced by inflation (increased cost of replacing the property); regular maintenance; and repair (new roofs, new electrical systems, etc.) because these factors reduce the effective age of the buildings.
The amount of depreciation applicable is somewhat subjective and certainly subject to negotiation. In fact, there is often disagreement and a degree of uncertainty over the amount of depreciation applicable to a particular building.
Given this reality, property owners should not leave the determination of depreciation to chance or wait until suffering a property loss to be concerned about it. Every three to five years, property owners should obtain a professional appraisal of the replacement value and depreciated value of the buildings.
The ACV valuation is an option for directors to consider when certain buildings are in need of repair, or budget constraints prevent insuring all of your facilities on a replacement cost basis. There are other valuation options for property owners to consider as well.
Functional Replacement Cost
This valuation method has been available for some time but has not been widely used. It is beginning to show up on property insurance policies imposed by underwriters with concerns about older, buildings. It can also be used for buildings, which are functionally obsolete.
This method provides for the replacement of a building with similar property that performs the same function, using less costly material. The endorsement includes coverage for building codes automatically.
In the event of a loss, the insurance company pays the smallest of four payment options.
1. In the event of a total loss, the insurer could pay the limit of insurance on the building or the cost to replace the building on the same (or different) site with a payment that is “functionally equivalent.”
2. In the event of a partial loss, the insurance company could pay the cost to repair or replace the damaged portion in the same architectural style with less costly material (if available).
3. The insurance company could also pay the amount actually spent to demolish the undamaged portion of the building and clear the site if necessary.
4. The fourth payment option is to pay the amount actually spent to repair, or replace the building using less costly materials, if available (Hillman and McCracken 1997).
Unlike the replacement cost valuation method, which excluded certain fixtures and personal property used to service the premises, this endorsement provides functional replacement cost coverage for these items (awnings, floor coverings, appliances, etc.) (Hillman nd McCracken 1997).
As in the standard replacement cost value option, the insured can elect not to repair or replace the property.
Under these circumstances the company pays the smallest of the following:
1. The Limit of Liability
2. The “market value” (not including the value of the land) at the time of the loss. The endorsement defines
“market value” as the price which the property might be expected to realize if ffered for sale in fair market.”
3. A modified form of ACV (the amount to repair or replace on he same site with less costly material and in the same architectural tyle, less depreciation) (Hillman and McCracken 1997).
Agreed Value or Agreed Amount
Agreed value or agreed amount is not a valuation method. Instead, his term refers to a waiver of the coinsurance clause in the property insurance policy. Availability of this coverage feature varies among insurers but, it is usually available only when the underwriter has proof (an independent appraisal, or compliance with an insurance company valuation model) of the value of your property.
When do I get paid?
Generally, the insurance company will not pay a replacement cost settlement until the property that was damaged or destroyed is actually repaired or replaced as soon as reasonably possible after the loss.
Under no circumstances will the insurance company pay more than your limit of insurance or more than the actual amount you spend to repair or replace the damaged property if this amount is less than the limit of insurance.
Replacement cost insurance terms give the insured the option of settling the loss on an ACV basis. This option may be exercised if you don’t plan to replace the building or if you are faced with a significant coinsurance penalty on a replacement cost settlement.
References:
http://www.schirickinsurance.com/resources/value2005.pdf
and
TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, MICKI
Information Security Management Handbook, 4th Edition, Volume 1
Property Insurance overview, Page 587.

Q33. Which of the following computer crime is MORE often associated with INSIDERS?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
It refers to the alteration of the existing data , most often seen before it is entered into an application.This type of crime is extremely common and can be prevented by using appropriate access controls and proper segregation of duties. It will more likely be perpetrated by insiders, who have access to data before it is processed.
The other answers are incorrect because :
IP Spoofing is not correct as the questions asks about the crime associated with the insiders. Spoofing is generally accomplished from the outside.
Password sniffing is also not the BEST answer as it requires a lot of technical knowledge in understanding the encryption and decryption process.
Denial of service (DOS) is also incorrect as most Denial of service attacks occur over the internet.
Reference : Shon Harris , AIO v3 , Chapter-10 : Law , Investigation & Ethics , Page : 758-760.

Q34. PGP uses which of the following to encrypt data?

 
 
 
 
Notice that the question specifically asks what PGP uses to encrypt For this, PGP uses an symmetric key algorithm. PGP then uses an asymmetric key algorithm to encrypt the session key and then send it securely to the receiver. It is an hybrid system where both types of ciphers are being used for different purposes.
Whenever a question talks about the bulk of the data to be sent, Symmetric is always best to choice to use because of the inherent speed within Symmetric Ciphers. Asymmetric ciphers are 100 to 1000 times slower than Symmetric Ciphers.
The other answers are not correct because:
“An asymmetric encryption algorithm” is incorrect because PGP uses a symmetric algorithm to encrypt data.
“A symmetric key distribution system” is incorrect because PGP uses an asymmetric algorithm for the distribution of the session keys used for the bulk of the data.
“An X.509 digital certificate” is incorrect because PGP does not use X.509 digital certificates to encrypt the data, it uses a session key to encrypt the data.
References:
Official ISC2 Guide page: 275 All in One Third Edition page: 664 – 665

Q35. Which of the following is based on the premise that the quality of a software product is a direct function of the quality of its associated software development and maintenance
processes?

 
 
 
 
The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a service mark owned by Carnegie Mellon University (CMU) and refers to a development model elicited from actual data. The data was collected from organizations that contracted with the U.S. Department of Defense, who funded the research, and became the foundation from which CMU created the Software Engineering Institute (SEI). Like any model, it is an abstraction of an existing system.
The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a methodology used to develop and refine an organization’s software development process. The model describes a five-level evolutionary path of increasingly organized and systematically more mature processes. CMM was developed and is promoted by the Software Engineering Institute (SEI), a research and development center sponsored by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD). SEI was founded in 1984 to address software engineering issues and, in a broad sense, to advance software engineering methodologies. More specifically, SEI was established to optimize the process of developing, acquiring, and maintaining heavily software-reliant systems for the DoD. Because the processes involved are equally applicable to the software industry as a whole, SEI advocates industry-wide adoption of the CMM.
The CMM is similar to ISO 9001, one of the ISO 9000 series of standards specified by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO). The ISO 9000 standards specify an effective quality system for manufacturing and service industries; ISO 9001 deals specifically with software development and maintenance. The main difference between the two systems lies in their respective purposes: ISO 9001 specifies a minimal acceptable quality level for software processes, while the CMM establishes a framework for continuous process improvement and is more explicit than the ISO standard in defining the means to be employed to that end. CMM’s Five Maturity Levels of Software Processes
At the initial level, processes are disorganized, even chaotic. Success is likely to depend on individual efforts, and is not considered to be repeatable, because processes would not be sufficiently defined and documented to allow them to be replicated. At the repeatable level, basic project management techniques are established, and successes could be repeated, because the requisite processes would have been made
established, defined, and documented.
At the defined level, an organization has developed its own standard software process
through greater attention to documentation, standardization, and integration.
At the managed level, an organization monitors and controls its own processes through
data collection and analysis.
At the optimizing level, processes are constantly being improved through monitoring
feedback from current processes and introducing innovative processes to better serve the
organization’s particular needs.
When it is applied to an existing organization’s software development processes, it allows
an effective approach toward improving them. Eventually it became clear that the model
could be applied to other processes. This gave rise to a more general concept that is
applied to business processes and to developing people.
CMM is superseded by CMMI
The CMM model proved useful to many organizations, but its application in software
development has sometimes been problematic. Applying multiple models that are not
integrated within and across an organization could be costly in terms of training, appraisals,
and improvement activities. The Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) project was
formed to sort out the problem of using multiple CMMs.
For software development processes, the CMM has been superseded by Capability
Maturity Model Integration (CMMI), though the CMM continues to be a general theoretical
process capability model used in the public domain.
CMM is adapted to processes other than software development
The CMM was originally intended as a tool to evaluate the ability of government contractors
to perform a contracted software project. Though it comes from the area of software
development, it can be, has been, and continues to be widely applied as a general model
of the maturity of processes (e.g., IT Service Management processes) in IS/IT (and other)
organizations.
Source:
http://searchsoftwarequality.techtarget.com/sDefinition/0,,sid92_gci930057,00.html
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Capability_Maturity_Model

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